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VCE Stuff => VCE Mathematics/Science/Technology => VCE Subjects + Help => VCE Mathematics => Topic started by: dcc on April 11, 2009, 11:50:19 am

Title: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on April 11, 2009, 11:50:19 am
Maths:

1.)  Find in terms of .

Solution 1 - Over9000
Solution 2 - dcc


2.) Show that .

Solution 1 - TrueTears
Solution 2 - Neobeo
Solution 3 - dcc

3.) Show

4.) Show that (or perhaps the even more general result for ).

Solution 1 - /0

5.) For a real number , evaluate .
(Source: 1995 Hosei University entrance exam/Business administration)

Solution 1 - coblin

6.) Find the minimum area of the part bounded by the parabola and the line .
(Source: 1963 Tokyo Metropolitan University entrance exam)

Solution 1 - Neobeo
Solution 2 - TrueTears


7.) Evaluate
(Source: 2008 Miyazaki University entrance exam/Agriculture)

Solution 1 - kamil9876

8.) Evaluate
(Source: Wikipedia)

Solution 1 - TrueTears
Solution 2 - dcc

9.) If you break a stick into 3 pieces what is the probability that the 3 pieces can form a triangle?
(Source: Neobeo)

Solution 1 - /0
Solution 2 - kamil9876

10.) Show (without calculus) that the minimum value of is .

Solution 1 - Damo17

11.) Find the maximum value of given that .

Solution 1 - humph

12.) Prove that is irrational.
(Source: TrueTears)

Solution 1 - Over9000


13.) Show that .
(Source: Damo17)

Solution 1 - dcc
Solution 2 - Over9000
Solution 3 - golden

14.) Let N be the positive integer with 2008 decimal digits, all of them 1. That is, , with 2008 occurrences of the digit 1. Find the 1005th digit after the decimal point in the decimal expansion of .
(Source: /0 - Melbourne University/BHP Billiton Maths Competition 2008)

Solution 1 - Over9000

15.) Neobeo is walking around in Luna Park, and notices an alleyway called 'Infinite Ice Cream'.  Neobeo notes that the 'Infinite Ice-Cream' appears to possess an infinitely large number of people selling ice-cream.  Upon walking outside any particular shop, Neobeo feels a huge compulsion to purchase an ice-cream.  For every shop that Neobeo visits, he is less likely to purchase an ice-cream then at the previous shop.  After purchasing an ice-cream, Neobeo leaves Luna Park.  What is the probability of Neobeo purchasing an ice-cream at the second shop in 'Infinite Ice Cream'?
(Source: IRC & the recesses of my brain)

Solution 1 - golden

16.) Find .

Solution 1 - TrueTears
Solution 2 - kamil9876
Solution 3 - dcc


17.) Find

18.) Find .
Do not use L'Hospital's rule to evaluate this, because that is boring.  Try and use limit laws and properties, rather then mindless derivatives.

MORE TO COME, I WILL EDIT THIS POST.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: enwiabe on April 11, 2009, 12:10:07 pm
Wow... those look like some good questions. Happy hunting!
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: TrueTears on April 11, 2009, 01:57:22 pm
2) I didn't use the information z = 15+ 30i but here's my working:

Let and

and



Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Over9000 on April 11, 2009, 03:12:49 pm
This way is probabaly way too long to be acceptable but anyway, for question 1



=
lets focus on for now



so
so
that means =




=

however
so
now we add the \cos4x we got all the way back at the top and we get

and
so




Therefore to sum up
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on April 11, 2009, 04:18:41 pm
Alternate solution for Q1:

Let



Note: .
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on April 11, 2009, 04:28:33 pm
NEW QUESTION POSTED.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on April 11, 2009, 06:14:06 pm
I've attatched the trick to number7, rest is trivial.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on April 11, 2009, 08:14:59 pm
I've attatched the trick to number7, rest is trivial.

How hard would it be to just go the extra yard and finish it off? :P
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: /0 on April 11, 2009, 08:32:44 pm
Question 4)









The rest follows from the identity



All steps are reversible if we assume

For the more general case, the cheap way to solve is to simply say:






Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on April 11, 2009, 09:16:20 pm
I've attatched the trick to number7, rest is trivial.

How hard would it be to just go the extra yard and finish it off? :P

It was all in the spirit of mathematics:

"A physicist and engineer and a mathematician were sleeping in a hotel room when a fire broke out in one corner of the room. Only the engineer woke up he saw the fire, grabbed a bucket of water and threw it on the fire and the fire went out, then he filled up the bucket again and threw that bucketfull on the ashes as a safety factor, and he went back to sleep. A little later, another fire broke out in a different corner of the room and only the physicist woke up. He went over measured the intensity of the fire, saw what material was burning and went over and carefully measured out exactly 2/3 of a bucket of water and poured it on, putting out the fire perfectly; the physicist went back to sleep. A little later another fire broke out in a different corner of the room. Only the mathematician woke up. He went over looked at the fire, he saw that there was a bucket and he noticed that it had no holes in it; he turned on the faucet and saw that there was water available. He, thus, concluded that there was a solution to the fire problem and he went back to sleep."


Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Collin Li on April 11, 2009, 09:35:30 pm


When ,

When ,

When , is negative from and positive from





Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Neobeo on April 12, 2009, 12:34:16 pm
6.) Find the minimum area of the part bounded by the parabola and the line .
(Source: 1963 Tokyo Metropolitan University entrance exam)

It is clear that lies above in the region, so we define:


Also define to be the upper terminal, such that

Minimising area, we get


Backsolving,

Then the integral for the area under the curve is simply:
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Neobeo on April 12, 2009, 01:03:58 pm
2.) Show that given .

(http://img21.imageshack.us/img21/4342/superfun.png)
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: TrueTears on April 12, 2009, 01:33:55 pm
6) let

and

(Say )

after sketching the graphs of and

The intersection points in terms of a are

These are the integration limits so:







To find the minimum area we require



solving for a yields

Therefore the intersection points become



Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on April 12, 2009, 01:51:50 pm
2.) Show that

Note that .

Therefore , which completes the proof.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Flaming_Arrow on April 13, 2009, 01:23:14 am
i have no idea how to any of these questions lol
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: /0 on April 13, 2009, 02:32:31 am

9.) If you break a stick into 3 pieces what is the probability that the 3 pieces can form a triangle?
(Source: Neobeo)


Let the stick of length L be broken into fragments of length x, y and z.
Since the problem is continuous probability, it's best to use a graph or something like that.
Hence, all possible breaks lie on the plane , with .



When the above graph is drawn, the area is represented by an equilateral triangle, and it is

_______________________________________

Now adding the restrictions

Since , this is the same as saying , or , and by symmetry, and .

So the allowable area is , with . This area is a mini-triangle within the larger triangle of the previous graph. The vertices (open points) of this triangle are , .



So the triangle is equilateral, and
_______________________________________

So the probability is

fun problem
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: hard on April 13, 2009, 02:45:58 pm
oh my god! i can't even draw 1/squareroot of 3-x
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: TrueTears on April 13, 2009, 04:00:10 pm
8) Had to do a bit of chinese text book reading and learning some new things for this question but anyways here goes:

First just some derivations:

Thus

Back to the question:

Treating the x in the question as a constant



For the definite integral with lower limit q and upper limit p:

To get the definite integral for this question let p = 1 and q = 0 , this yields:



BUT

subbing this in leads to a double integral namely:

after changing the order of integration we have:



So now we are integrating with respect to x first thus we treat t as a constant



Good learning experience for me this question.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Damo17 on April 13, 2009, 04:37:28 pm
10.) Show (without calculus) that the minimum value of is .



Using the theorem:
If n positive functions have a fixed product, there sum is a minimum if it can be arranged that the functions are equal.
 

let

Although the three terms of the sum have a constant product, we run into trouble if we apply the aforementioned theorem as there is no value of x that satisfies these equations.

But if we set aside the constant, , and minimise the sum to we are able to solve the question.

The minimum comes by equating:

 



We take the positive solution as per the restriction of the question.

the minimum of is

(using the fact that if then the min value of the sum is therefore and adapting that to  gives .)


Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on April 13, 2009, 04:48:17 pm
8.) Evaluate
(Source: Wikipedia)

.

Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Over9000 on April 13, 2009, 05:01:36 pm
q12

Prove is irrational
let x be a rational number
let , where a and b are relatively prime integers
let



A rational result for this is impossible, therefore is irrational
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on April 13, 2009, 06:10:33 pm
13.) Show that .
(Source: Damo17)

Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Over9000 on April 13, 2009, 06:36:54 pm
prove




Divide both sides by 9
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Over9000 on April 13, 2009, 09:02:14 pm
so N=1111.......1111 and so on with 2008 recurrences of the digit 1
We must find the 1005th digit after the decimal point in the expansion





so we begin to see a trend where an even amount of digits of 1 are of the form 3.31..... and each time two more digits of 1 are added there is a 3 added to left side of decimal point and a 3 added to right side of decimal point.
so for example, a term with 8 digits of 1 square rooted i.e has 4 3's before the decimal place and 4 3's after it followed by a 1 then 6 and so on.
so for an integer with 2008 digits of 1, there are 1004 3's before the decimal point and 1004 3's after it. We are looking for the 1005th term and as we can see in the trend, the last 3 is always followed up by a 1, therefore the 1005th term after the decimal point in an integer with 2008 digits of 1 using expansion , is 1

This isnt a very alegbraic way of doing this question but I just used patterns
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on April 13, 2009, 09:50:40 pm
Here is one i came up with in church today:

9.) If you break a stick into 3 pieces what is the probability that the 3 pieces can form a triangle?

If the stick has length L. And the three pieces have length a,b and c and c is the longest one then:






Say L=1 unit  for simplicity.

So basically we have the segment [0,1] and we must choose 2 points such that no segment has a length greater than 0.5. Say the first point we choose is in the first half. That means that the next point must be in the second half because if they would be both in the same half then we would get a piece greater than or equal to 0.5.

Example: say the first point is at point 0.2. that means the next point must be in (0.5,0.7).

Generally: if the first point is at x (and in the first half) then the next point must be in (0.5,x+0.5)

Let's turn this into a discrete probability problem

We will do this by splitting the stick up into n segments. In other words say the only possible points we can pick are 1/n, 2/n, 3/n.... n/n=1

Say we pick the kth point, in other words, x=k/n. using an analog of the general principle shown earlier, we can show that the next point must be in between the (n/2 +1)th and  (n/2 + k)th point (inclusive). (assume k is in the first half)
So that means that if we the kth point, the probability that we pick a valid point is k/n. The probability that we pick the kth point is 1/n. That means that the probability that we pick the kth point followed by a valid point is . Now we want the sum of the probabilities. So we want to add up k=1,k=2,k=3... all the way up to k=n/2 (since we are only considering the first half).

That means the probabilty of picking a point in the first half, followed by a valid point is:







Now we want a continous situation so we let n approach infinity.

This gives a probability of 1/8. However now we have to double that to take the second half into account so it is 1/4.

And well done \0 on ur shorter solution :)
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: /0 on April 14, 2009, 01:27:32 am
so N=1111.......1111 and so on with 2008 recurrences of the digit 1
We must find the 1005th digit after the decimal point in the expansion





so we begin to see a trend where an even amount of digits of 1 are of the form 3.31..... and each time two more digits of 1 are added there is a 3 added to left side of decimal point and a 3 added to right side of decimal point.
so for example, a term with 8 digits of 1 square rooted i.e has 4 3's before the decimal place and 4 3's after it followed by a 1 then 6 and so on.
so for an integer with 2008 digits of 1, there are 1004 3's before the decimal point and 1004 3's after it. We are looking for the 1005th term and as we can see in the trend, the last 3 is always followed up by a 1, therefore the 1005th term after the decimal point in an integer with 2008 digits of 1 using expansion , is 1

This isnt a very alegbraic way of doing this question but I just used patterns

correct, nice observation
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: TonyHem on April 14, 2009, 02:10:57 am
i have no idea how to any of these questions lol

pretty much the same here
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: humph on April 14, 2009, 02:49:37 pm
11.) Find the maximum value of given that .
We have that

By the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality,

So is bounded above by .
In fact, equality holds in the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality when one vector is a multiple of the other; that is, if
for some .
As

and hence

we clearly have that equality holds when

and so achieves the upper bound for these values of .
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on April 15, 2009, 10:20:10 pm
new questions posted!
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: TrueTears on April 15, 2009, 10:57:34 pm
Noticing the fundamental limit:



Let yields:

Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on April 15, 2009, 11:02:32 pm
16.) use l'hopital's rule.

OR:



 (1)

However:






equating this with (1) gives QED

(btw, my is ur )
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on April 15, 2009, 11:31:03 pm
Noticing the fundamental limit:



Let yields:



lol damn that was trivial. there are many definitions of e. This limit would be less trivial if we began with a different definition of e, namely:



or that series expansion.

btw: dcc what was ur 'expected solution' since this is aimed at spec students so i tried to limit(sorry for pun, only found it when proofreading) myself to spec knowledge however by doing so we made the problem more trivial, which is not a general trend of these problems.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on April 15, 2009, 11:36:12 pm
Question 16:



Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on April 15, 2009, 11:41:02 pm
btw: dcc what was ur 'expected solution' since this is aimed at spec students so i tried to limit(sorry for pun, only found it when proofreading) myself to spec knowledge however by doing so we made the problem more trivial, which is not a general trend of these problems.

I don't really have any 'expected solutions' for any of these problems, I just figured this thread would get more coverage in the Specialist Maths forums then in the General Mathematics forum. 
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on April 15, 2009, 11:59:07 pm
ok kool :)
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: TrueTears on April 16, 2009, 12:09:11 am
16) Using l'hopital's theorem

(http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/7/0/6/7060db67ab58934d6c044c97ae0096aa.png)

Let



Differentiating with respect to yields:





therefore equation becomes

limit yields:
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: TrueTears on April 16, 2009, 12:23:03 am
Find

17) Using l'hopital's theorem again

let



so



so

limit yields
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on April 16, 2009, 02:03:15 pm
18.)



Term inside the outermost brackets is between -1 and 1 when x is beyond a certain value, provided that a is not between -1 and 1. Therefore that term raised to some number is also between -1 and 1.




 



Now take limit as x approaches infinity of all sides (aka sandwhich theorem or squeeze theorem)

Hence the thing equals 0 for all values not in (-1,1].

Btw: the above is for a>1. For a<-1 we need to reverse the inequality, which still gives the same answer.

For value a=0. The limit is obviously 0.

For values in (0,1):

Looking at the original expression, it is obvious that the term can be made as small as one wishes by making x large enough. At some value of x, the expression is some value M. Hence by increasing the value of x the modulus of the expression becomes less than the modulus of M. The expression is negative, so the expression becomes greater than M (less negative).

Hence we know that for all values of x beyond some number:




Now take the limit as x approaches infinity of these terms and u find that the limit of the lower bound is zero since the gets smaller in modulus as x approaches infinity(in fact it approaches -1), while the bit appraoches 0. And so using the product property the limit is 0 and so the limit asked in the question is also 0 for a in (0,1).



the term is between 0 and 1. The modulus of the term
can be made as small as we like. Hence when x is beyond some value the term will always be between 0 and 1. Using sandwhich theorem again gives the required result.

Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: TrueTears on April 16, 2009, 02:05:10 pm
You got to put another } after the ^{....           
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Ahmad on June 26, 2009, 10:55:53 pm
I have a triangle, and I connect each vertex of the triangle to a point on the opposite side which divides the side into 3. Like this:

(http://i202.photobucket.com/albums/aa132/ahmad0/geotr.gif)

These lines intersect each other to form a triangle, which is the triangle defined by the 3 red dots shown. What is the area of this triangle?

(Bonus: what if instead of dividing the opposite side into 3, you divide it into n?)
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: toomoo on June 29, 2009, 07:09:41 pm
Can someone explain the disadvantages of doing all three maths in there vce?

Cheers :)
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on June 29, 2009, 07:16:28 pm
VCE maths is dull. Kills the creativity and appreciation of mathematical rigour that some of the questions in here and other recreational problem threads require.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: NE2000 on June 29, 2009, 07:18:05 pm
Can someone explain the disadvantages of doing all three maths in there vce?

Cheers :)

Only two may count to your Primary 4. So if you are really a maths person and you 50 all your maths, then one of them will still be relegated to 10%. Other than that, the only other disadvantage is that you might get bored doing further at the same time as spesh. Ideally I would say the best way to do this would be further yr. 10, methods yr. 11, spesh yr. 12 so you avoid that potential pitfall
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: NE2000 on June 29, 2009, 07:18:40 pm
VCE maths is dull. Kills the creativity and appreciation of mathematical rigour that some of the questions in here and other recreational problem threads require.

Although some of the spesh integration stuff that requires thinking outside the box a bit is always good to do and gives a good sense of satisfaction at the end
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on June 29, 2009, 09:20:27 pm
Please try to keep on-topic.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: NE2000 on June 29, 2009, 09:22:57 pm
Please try to keep on-topic.

yep was just responding to toomoo's off-topic post...... :-\
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: TrueTears on June 30, 2009, 02:28:44 am
Is transcendental, for algebraic a ≠ 0,1 and irrational algebraic b ?

lol
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: /0 on June 30, 2009, 06:03:33 am
Is transcendental, for algebraic a ≠ 0,1 and irrational algebraic b ?

lol

yes
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Ahmad on June 30, 2009, 09:07:39 am
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gelfond%E2%80%93Schneider_theorem
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on June 30, 2009, 11:02:09 am
I have a triangle, and I connect each vertex of the triangle to a point on the opposite side which divides the side into 3. Like this:

(http://i202.photobucket.com/albums/aa132/ahmad0/geotr.gif)

These lines intersect each other to form a triangle, which is the triangle defined by the 3 red dots shown. What is the area of this triangle?

(Bonus: what if instead of dividing the opposite side into 3, you divide it into n?)

[(n-2)^2 (n^2-n+1)] / [n^2 (n-1)^2] of the area of the given triangle.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: toomoo on June 30, 2009, 07:04:28 pm


Although some of the spesh integration stuff that requires thinking outside the box a bit is always good to do and gives a good sense of satisfaction at the end
[/quote]


Cheers brother
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Ahmad on July 01, 2009, 11:20:46 am
I'm not sure that is right evaporade, might you have made a silly mistake somewhere?
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 01, 2009, 01:12:40 pm
Thanks

1/7

(n-2)^2 /(n^2-n+1)
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Ahmad on July 01, 2009, 02:18:29 pm
That looks more like it! :)

It would be nice (and possibly helpful to others) if you could briefly outline how you did it
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 01, 2009, 05:52:41 pm
The result is true for any triangle.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: /0 on July 01, 2009, 08:59:43 pm
It looks like menelaus theorem could be applied but I haven't tried it yet
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 03, 2009, 09:04:08 am
Bonus questions

(http://img13.imageshack.us/img13/4088/vcenotesforumgeometry.gif)

You can extend to a different polygon.

Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Cthulhu on July 05, 2009, 07:04:00 pm
BONUS QUESTION FOR 1e1000000 points.
Consider the function of complex variable s

Show that all non-trivial zeroes have real part 1/2
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 05, 2009, 07:48:30 pm
not up to that yet in vce spesh
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: zzdfa on July 05, 2009, 08:34:05 pm
^lol
the other threadz are dead so ill post here:

(http://img21.imageshack.us/img21/5870/analysis.jpg)

b) and c) are quite simple, but my answer for a) is looooooooong . im wondering if i missed something simple.

any ideas?
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on July 05, 2009, 08:35:54 pm
BONUS QUESTION FOR 1e1000000 points.
Consider the function of complex variable s

Show that all non-trivial zeroes have real part 1/2

Haha some people think they can:

http://www.google.com.au/search?hl=en&q=proof+of+riemann+hypothesis

Fermat's last theorem is funny too:

http://www.fermatproof.com/
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Cthulhu on July 05, 2009, 08:53:46 pm
BONUS QUESTION FOR 1e1000000 points.
Consider the function of complex variable s

Show that all non-trivial zeroes have real part 1/2

Haha some people think they can:

http://www.google.com.au/search?hl=en&q=proof+of+riemann+hypothesis

Fermat's last theorem is funny too:

http://www.fermatproof.com/
I'm glad someone caught on. ;)

It's always funny when people make websites with "proofs" of things like the Riemann Hypothesis or when they have a Theory of Everything.

If you're interested here is a documentary about the proof of Fermat's Last Theorem. IIRC the final proof was over 100 pages long.

Interesting fact: Andrew Wile's was knighted for the proof.

Edit: Here: Have the article as well.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: /0 on July 05, 2009, 10:32:47 pm
For a) isn't the locus the perpendicular plane bisector of line XY excluding the midpoint of XY? So z could be anything on the plane?
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: zzdfa on July 05, 2009, 10:42:25 pm
nah, in 3d it's like the intersection of the surface of 2 spheres with radius r around points x and y,:
(http://www.hoboes.com/library/graphics/NetLife/POV/Die10/lens1.png)

i think you passed over the fact that r is fixed :)
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: d0minicz on July 05, 2009, 10:58:49 pm
BONUS QUESTION FOR 1e1000000 points.
Consider the function of complex variable s

Show that all non-trivial zeroes have real part 1/2

Haha some people think they can:

http://www.google.com.au/search?hl=en&q=proof+of+riemann+hypothesis

Fermat's last theorem is funny too:

http://www.fermatproof.com/
I'm glad someone caught on. ;)

It's always funny when people make websites with "proofs" of things like the Riemann Hypothesis or when they have a Theory of Everything.

If you're interested here is a documentary about the proof of Fermat's Last Theorem. IIRC the final proof was over 100 pages long.

Interesting fact: Andrew Wile's was knighted for the proof.

Edit: Here: Have the article as well.
the guy in the vid was fcking crazy
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: ryley on July 05, 2009, 11:34:44 pm
I'm surprised (and depressed) that I actually recognised the zeta function and the part that followed, I gotta stop wasting time on wiki and mathworld and do more english/life.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 12:21:51 am
^lol
the other threadz are dead so ill post here:

(http://img21.imageshack.us/img21/5870/analysis.jpg)

b) and c) are quite simple, but my answer for a) is looooooooong . im wondering if i missed something simple.

any ideas?

(http://img199.imageshack.us/img199/7790/vcenotesforum4.gif)
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: zzdfa on July 06, 2009, 12:37:56 am
nice drawing, but the bottom left corner of the triangle should be touching the circle ;p
but yeah, pretty much my proof was:
(1) that if k>=3 then there are infinite number of unit vectors perpendicular to x-y
(2) that for every unit vector perpendicular to x-y there is a z that satisfies |z-x|=|z-y|=r

looking back over my proof i realize most of it was showing (1). probably shouldve just prepended 'clearly' to the statement and be done with it.
surprisingly I don't think i used the triangle inequality for a) b) or c)

 
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 12:42:02 am
No, the circle extends to infinity, z is just a member.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: zzdfa on July 06, 2009, 12:57:22 am
This is what the question asks you to show:
      for any given r>d/2,
      there exists infinitely many z such that |z-x|=|z-y|=r

This is what I think you think the question asks:
      there exists infinitely many z such that |z-x|=|z-y|>d/2

they are different.
(http://img22.imageshack.us/img22/3995/rarx.jpg)
look at the red lines. their lengths are greater than r. so they don't satisfy the condition that  |z-x|=|z-y|=r.
if the circle extends to infinity then it'd just be a plane.


edited to make the point i was trying to make clearer
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 09:02:04 am
you used the word circle, so I used the word circle. Yes it is a plane in 3D but the same idea in higher dimensions and it would be difficult to illustrate with a diagram.

Don't know what you meant by 'there exists infinitely many z such that |z-x|=|z-y|>2d'
The diagram clearly shows 2r > d
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 09:06:34 am
The diagram also explains parts (b) and (c).
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: zzdfa on July 06, 2009, 11:18:47 am
made a few typos in the previous post, fixed now
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 01:15:41 pm
The set of z is the shaded plane.
r is the 'distance' from any z on the plane to x or y.
r is not a constant as you tended to suggest in quote "look at the red lines. their lengths are greater than r. so they don't satisfy the condition that  |z-x|=|z-y|=r".
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on July 06, 2009, 04:31:56 pm
The question means "for a constant r" show that there are infinitely many z. You are right that there are infinitely many r's but ultimately you want to show that for each r, there are infinitely many z. That is, if we select an r and keep it constant, then we find infinitely many z, and that this condition holds for any r>0.5d. For each r the set of z is a circle, however the union of all these circles is a plane, yes. Evaporade's disk just has the unions of some circles and so he has shown this to by true for any r>0.5d in general for k=3(however to make this more explicit it would probably be good to add in the circle that the points z lies on but imagination can easily fill that in heh)
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 05:05:10 pm
r > 0  means any r > 0, not a constant r > 0. I used a dotted circle (look at the picture) to mean the plane is infinite, not because I was thinking about a constant r.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on July 06, 2009, 05:23:44 pm
Yes, any r>0. But specifically, if we select say r=3 (provided d<1.5), we find an infinite set of z that satisfy |z-x|=|z-y|=3. If we select r=4, we find infinite set of z that satisfy |z-x|=|z-y|=4 etc.

It's possible, generally speaking, for a set to have finite members, but a union of infinite such sets to have infinite members, hence it's important for this problem to show that each subset(each selected r value) has infinite members. But I think your diagram shows that (the disk is a set of circles(subsets) and each circle contains infinite points)  so all good :)
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 06:38:24 pm
There is only one set - the 'plane' that is 'perpendicular' to and passes through the 'line' xy at its midpoint. z belongs to this set for (a) and (b), and there is no z in this set or outside this set satisfying requirement (c). There is no subset of this 'plane' to be considered in this problem. 
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 07:14:25 pm
By the way could you please name the set with finite number of members, which you referred to?
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: zzdfa on July 06, 2009, 07:40:12 pm
r > 0  means any r > 0, not a constant r > 0. I used a dotted circle (look at the picture) to mean the plane is infinite, not because I was thinking about a constant r.

So for a question such as:

the answer would be infinity?

By the way could you please name the set with finite number of members, which you referred to?

i think he was just using it as an example,

that it is possible to form a set with an infinite number of elements, by taking the union of an infinite number of finite sets, thus if one wanted to prove that each individual set was infinite, it does not suffice to show that the union of them is infinite.
e.g.
The natural numbers = {1} U {2,3,4.....}
the union is infinite but one of the sets is finite.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 07:52:56 pm
So what is the point in considering the union of sets when you can simply name the infinite set? Besides, this question is not about set theory. Part (a) is a simple question about 'the sum of two sides of a triangle > third side' in higher dimensions.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on July 06, 2009, 07:54:16 pm
yep zzdfa answered my question exactly. I did not want to reiterate myself.

evaporade: I never said "finite sets" in this particular problem, but in general terms(even said "generally speaking"). However a proof of such a statement would have to rule out the possibility of an infinite set of finite set. I was going to ask you what is your answer to "how would this statement(a) need to be modified for k=2?" because with your logic the answer would be "this statement is also true for k=2" but according to mine and zzdfa's understanding it is not as it a case of an infinite set of finite sets. (a line being a set of points).
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on July 06, 2009, 07:57:34 pm
So what is the point in considering the union of sets when you can simply name the infinite set?


thus if one wanted to prove that each individual set was infinite, it does not suffice to show that the union of them is infinite.
e.g.
The natural numbers = {1} U {2,3,4.....}
the union is infinite but one of the sets is finite.


Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: zzdfa on July 06, 2009, 07:59:00 pm
Your diagram indicates the set of all |z-x|=|z-y|=r for any r
The question asks that,
given any r, is there an infinite number of points such that |z-x|=|z-y|=r

there's a difference
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 08:10:34 pm
I don't see any difference. The question did not even use the word given, it said suppose r > 0, i.e. |z - x| = |z - y| > 0 .
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 08:17:38 pm
"how would this statement(a) need to be modified for k=2?"

No modification required for (a), (b) and (c). The infinite set of z in this case is the perpendicular bisector of xy.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on July 06, 2009, 08:32:55 pm
There is a a modification required if you take mine and zzdfa's understanding:

"if k=2 then there are only 2 such z's for any r".

Maybe my english is bad, but I think the question does mean 'for any given r' since it is introduced in the opening sentence just like x,y and d are and we do consider x,y and d as constant hence same for r. This is just a matter of understanding the english.

But as to whether there is a difference between the two interpretations, there certainly is for reasons reiterated many times above.

In fact you could just as easily say that x and y are not constant(introduced in the exact same sentence as r) and then the answer would be so trivial.

Btw: Interpreting it as "for any given r" is a much more fun problem(hence the thread name) and the statements then do indeed require modifications for k=2.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 10:02:59 pm
Quote "Maybe my english is bad, but I think the question does mean 'for any given r' since it is introduced in the opening sentence just like x,y and d are and we do consider x,y and d as constant hence same for r".

(http://img21.imageshack.us/img21/5870/analysis.jpg)

Let us make things simple, consider the following:

Suppose x,y E R, |x - y| = d > 0. Are you suggesting that the value of x and the value of y are given constants?
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on July 06, 2009, 10:19:48 pm
Forget the word 'constant' then. All I mean is that the question can be stated as "prove that for every given x, y and r (such that 2r>|x-y|) there are infinitely many z such that...". This is what I meant by constant, just like in your diagram x and y are constant and fixed points because you are proving that 'for every given x and y...'
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 10:21:43 pm
Another example:

Suppose x,y E R, y = 2x + d. Do you interpret the value of x and the value of y are given constants?
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 10:24:11 pm
Forget the word 'constant' then. All I mean is that the question can be stated as "prove that for every given x, y and r (such that 2r>|x-y|) there are infinitely many z such that...". This is what I meant by constant, just like in your diagram x and y are constant and fixed points because you are proving that 'for every given x and y...'


But the question was not stated like that. You chose to interpret it that way.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: zzdfa on July 06, 2009, 10:25:21 pm
it's the convention
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 10:27:31 pm
Rubbish. What convention. Read the example.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: zzdfa on July 06, 2009, 10:32:46 pm
your example is completely different from the question.

a better one would be the one i posted earlier.

sure you could say there are an infinite number of cases where r=m
but almost always it means 'for any particular r, how many m where m=r'


and in response to your example, i would say, there is exactly one d such that y=2x+d.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 10:34:54 pm
I followed the wordings of your question. Your example is completely different from the original wording.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: evaporade on July 06, 2009, 10:35:47 pm
Also, what convention?
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: humph on July 08, 2009, 02:54:35 pm
Lolz. The question is asking you to prove that if you FIX some value , then there exist infinitely many (uncountably infinite, in this case) points satisfying . That is, the phrase "suppose that " implies that cannot vary at all, it is one fixed value.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: brightsky on January 02, 2010, 06:15:48 pm
Might have already been solved, but loved this one!! ><

13. Prove that

Let .

Then .

Hence,
From the evaluation above:



and



So, .
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: brightsky on January 02, 2010, 09:37:40 pm
Are we allowed to use L'Hospital's rule for this one?

17.

This is an indeterminate form 0/0, as if you x = 0 is undefined when you sub it in. So using L'Hospital's rule, where and we have:









Write as using the continuity of at .





Sub x = 0 in:




Write as by using the continuity of at :



Write as using the power law:

Sub x = 0 in:



The limit of as . Sub that in:




Sub x = 0 in:
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: TrueTears on January 02, 2010, 09:40:03 pm
I already posted using L'hopital's rule but dcc wants a less cheap way :)

Maybe try sandwich it, play around.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: brightsky on January 02, 2010, 09:48:10 pm
Ahh ok. Took me forever to type up! :p
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: TrueTears on January 02, 2010, 09:50:49 pm
Find

17) Using l'hopital's theorem again

let



so



so

limit yields
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: brightsky on January 02, 2010, 09:52:46 pm
Wow! That was fast!
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: TrueTears on January 02, 2010, 09:55:26 pm
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: zzdfa on January 02, 2010, 10:12:47 pm


=  (because as . becomes 1 because x^2 -> 0 alot faster than 3x->0)


=        (because x^2->0 alot faster than x->0)                    

remember doing derivatives by first principles? let .



but we also know that , so .  
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: taiga on March 29, 2010, 09:42:17 pm
Idk for 0.9 recurring  = 1

I would have just said

1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 1

therefore
0.3333 + 0.3333 + 0.3333 = 1
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: Martoman on May 03, 2010, 04:50:52 pm
hey guys

I know its been answered before but not my way.

Q7)



Let

So that

Now subbing in:



We know from u that

Meaning =

Cracking out the partial fractions in terms of u tells us that in the form =

Changing terminals and combining all our info:

Crunching out to
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: golden on December 19, 2010, 10:59:29 am
Maths:

13.) Show that .
(Source: Damo17)




0.9999.... = 0.9 reoccurring (9).
0.9 reoccurring (9) = 0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 ...
0.9 x 1/10 = 0.09
0.09 x 1/10 = 0.009 (etc.)
Therefore r = 1/10.

S = a(1-r^n)/(1-r)
As n approaches infinity, r^n approaches 0.
S = a(1)/(1-r)
S = a/(1-r)
a = 'first number', i.e. 0.9
r = 1/10

S = 0.9/(1-1/10)
S = 0.9/0.9
S = 1

As required.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: golden on December 19, 2010, 11:22:13 am
May I ask to what equivalence (in terms of what year in VCE or perhaps beyond) are the questions?
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: onur369 on December 19, 2010, 11:26:04 am
May I ask to what equivalence (in terms of what year in VCE or perhaps beyond) are the questions?

it looks like further maths to me, number sequences
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: golden on December 19, 2010, 11:45:38 am
15.) Neobeo is walking around in Luna Park, and notices an alleyway called 'Infinite Ice Cream'.  Neobeo notes that the 'Infinite Ice-Cream' appears to possess an infinitely large number of people selling ice-cream.  Upon walking outside any particular shop, Neobeo feels a huge compulsion to purchase an ice-cream.  For every shop that Neobeo visits, he is 37\% less likely to purchase an ice-cream then at the previous shop.  After purchasing an ice-cream, Neobeo leaves Luna Park.  What is the probability of Neobeo purchasing an ice-cream at the second shop in 'Infinite Ice Cream'?

I'm not too sure about this question. I got 23.31%.
Pr(2nd) = 0.63y
Pr(added totals) = 100y/37
0.63y/(100y/37)
0.2331
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: golden on December 19, 2010, 11:46:13 am
I get the feeling that some of the other questions aren't Further Mathematics equivalent.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: onur369 on December 19, 2010, 11:47:21 am
I get the feeling that some of the other questions aren't Further Mathematics equivalent.

I did general maths(standard) in year 11 and the difficulty is the same lol.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: golden on December 19, 2010, 11:49:17 am
With regards to these questions? http://vce.atarnotes.com/forum/index.php/topic,12907.0.html
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on December 19, 2010, 03:16:11 pm
15.) Neobeo is walking around in Luna Park, and notices an alleyway called 'Infinite Ice Cream'.  Neobeo notes that the 'Infinite Ice-Cream' appears to possess an infinitely large number of people selling ice-cream.  Upon walking outside any particular shop, Neobeo feels a huge compulsion to purchase an ice-cream.  For every shop that Neobeo visits, he is 37\% less likely to purchase an ice-cream then at the previous shop.  After purchasing an ice-cream, Neobeo leaves Luna Park.  What is the probability of Neobeo purchasing an ice-cream at the second shop in 'Infinite Ice Cream'?

I'm not too sure about this question. I got 23.31%.
Pr(2nd) = 0.63y
Pr(added totals) = 100y/37
0.63y/(100y/37)
0.2331

I'm not entirely sure what you've done here, but the answer is correct.
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: brightsky on December 19, 2010, 05:13:56 pm
15.) Neobeo is walking around in Luna Park, and notices an alleyway called 'Infinite Ice Cream'.  Neobeo notes that the 'Infinite Ice-Cream' appears to possess an infinitely large number of people selling ice-cream.  Upon walking outside any particular shop, Neobeo feels a huge compulsion to purchase an ice-cream.  For every shop that Neobeo visits, he is 37\% less likely to purchase an ice-cream then at the previous shop.  After purchasing an ice-cream, Neobeo leaves Luna Park.  What is the probability of Neobeo purchasing an ice-cream at the second shop in 'Infinite Ice Cream'?

I'm not too sure about this question. I got 23.31%.
Pr(2nd) = 0.63y
Pr(added totals) = 100y/37
0.63y/(100y/37)
0.2331

I'm not entirely sure what you've done here, but the answer is correct.

dcc, would you be able to post some new questions?
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on December 20, 2010, 12:46:21 pm
How about trying 17 or 18? :D
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: dcc on December 20, 2010, 12:56:11 pm
17.) Find

Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: kamil9876 on December 20, 2010, 01:11:56 pm
Consider a network of (finitely many) cities such that between every city there exists a road, and each road is strictly one way (you can travel in one direction ONLY). Show that there exists a path that visits each city exactly once. (A directed Hamiltonian path)
Title: Re: SUPER-FUN-HAPPY-MATHS-TIME
Post by: liam_103 on May 31, 2011, 10:22:43 am
Some good questions here guys!

Keep up the good work!