Login

Welcome, Guest. Please login or register.

March 29, 2024, 07:59:55 pm

Author Topic: Proof by contrapositive  (Read 2943 times)  Share 

0 Members and 1 Guest are viewing this topic.

jaccs

  • Adventurer
  • *
  • Posts: 7
  • Respect: 0
Proof by contrapositive
« on: February 21, 2022, 12:00:17 pm »
0
 Consider the following theorem about prime numbers.
If  (∀ a, b ∈ Z+, p|ab ⇒ p|a or p|b) then p is prime.
 Prove the theorem by proving the contrapositive. and we are given hint Put a = p1, where p1 is a prime divisor of p, and b = p/p1

So far have only gotten this far:

contrapositive:
If p is not prime then ∃ a, b ∈ Z+ such that p|ab ⇒ p | a and p | b

any help greatly appreciated

RuiAce

  • ATAR Notes Lecturer
  • Honorary Moderator
  • Great Wonder of ATAR Notes
  • *******
  • Posts: 8814
  • "All models are wrong, but some are useful."
  • Respect: +2575
Re: Proof by contrapositive
« Reply #1 on: April 10, 2022, 03:31:54 pm »
+5
Your contrapositive is correct.

To actually prove the contrapositive, use the hint they've given. Suppose that \(p\) is composite. Then there exists a prime factor \( p_1 \) of \(p\). However, carefully note that because \(p_1\) is a prime divisor of \(p\), that \(1 < p_1 < p\).

We wish to only prove a "there-exists" statement as you correctly stated, so we may choose our values for \(a\) and \(b\). Make the specific choice \(a=p_1\) and \(b=\frac{p}{p_1}\) as they've given in the hint. Then on one hand, it is clearly true that \( ab = p \), so the obvious fact that \( p\mid p\) implies \(p\mid ab\).

On the other hand, we know that \(p_1 < p\). Therefore it's impossible that \( p \mid p_1 \), since no integer is divisible by any integer less than it. Therefore \( p\not\mid a\).

Likewise, since \(p_1 > 1\), it follows that \(\frac{p}{p_1} < \frac{p}{1} = p\). That is, \( \frac{p}{p_1}\) is also an integer strictly less than \(p\). Hence \(p \not\mid \frac{p}{p_1} \), i.e. \(p \not\mid b\).

And the contrapositive has now been proven.