ATAR Notes: Forum
VCE Stuff => VCE University of Melbourne Extension Program => VCE University Enhancement Programs => VCE Subjects + Help => VCE Mathematics => Topic started by: Ahmad on October 20, 2007, 12:24:53 pm
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This is the UMEP equivalent of the spesh thread. Questions here tend to require UMEP knowledge.
I'll start with a couple of integrals from the exercise book, then we'll move out from there.
 } \displaystyle\int^1_0 \frac{t^4\cdot(1-t^4)}{1+t^2}\,dt)
 } \displaystyle\int^1_0 \frac{t^4\cdot(1-t)^4}{1+t^2}\,dt\mbox{ (Corrected version)})
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lol u sure have alot of spare time to play with maths
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Mainly because I choose to ignore school work. Not recommended! 8)
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Question 1
f(t) = t^4 * (1 - t^4) / (1 + t^2)
= t^4 (1 - t^2)(1 + t^2) / (1 + t^2)
= t^4 (1 - t^2)
= t^4 - t^6
Integration (with respect to t) yields:
F(t) = 1/5*t^5 - 1/6*t^6 + C
Therefore, integration from 0 to 1:
F(1) - F(0) = (1/5 - 1/6) - 0
= 1/30
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Of course, you're right. Except I accidently mistyped the problem! I have corrected it now. :oops:
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Of course, you're right. Except I accidently mistyped the problem! I have corrected it now. :oops:
Wow, I'm surprised that the accident actually yielded a possible problem.
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Right.
1. int (0 to 1) t^4 * (1 - t)^4 / (1 + t^2) dt (Corrected version)
Expanding the top:
(t^8 - 4t^2 + 6t^6 - 4t^5 + t^4) / (1+t^2)
Taking a factor of (1+t^2) from the numerator:
((1+t^2)(-4/(t^2+1)+t^6-4t^5+5t^4-4t^2+4)) / (1+t^2)
Hence int (0 to 1) t^4 * (1 - t)^4 / (1 + t^2) dt = int (0 to 1) ( -4/(t^2+1)+t^6-4t^5+5t^4-4t^2+4) )
Which can be evaluated.
= [ -4tan-1(t) + t^7/7 - 2t^6/3 + t^5 - 4t^3/3 + 4t ] (0 to 1)
= [ -4*(pi/4) + 1/7 - 2/3 + 1 - 4/3 +4 ] - (zero)
= -pi + 22/7
= 22/7 - pi
(I know there are probably more efficient ways to deduce the answer, but hey... whatever works?)
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Correct. I'll post more when I have time/can be bothered. :)
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Right.
1. int (0 to 1) t^4 * (1 - t)^4 / (1 + t^2) dt (Corrected version)
Expanding the top:
(t^8 - 4t^2 + 6t^6 - 4t^5 + t^4) / (1+t^2)
Taking a factor of (1+t^2) from the numerator:
((1+t^2)(-4/(t^2+1)+t^6-4t^5+5t^4-4t^2+4)) / (1+t^2)
Hence int (0 to 1) t^4 * (1 - t)^4 / (1 + t^2) dt = int (0 to 1) ( -4/(t^2+1)+t^6-4t^5+5t^4-4t^2+4) )
Which can be evaluated.
= [ -4tan-1(t) + t^7/7 - 2t^6/3 + t^5 - 4t^3/3 + 4t ] (0 to 1)
= [ -4*(pi/4) + 1/7 - 2/3 + 1 - 4/3 +4 ] - (zero)
= -pi + 22/7
= 22/7 - pi
(I know there are probably more efficient ways to deduce the answer, but hey... whatever works?)
What's interesting is that 22/7 is the fraction approximation for pi that we learn in like year 8. :P so 22/7 - pi according to year 8 maths is 0. Ah, the lies we're told. :(
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Yup, furthermore you can yield a bound on pi by noting int (0 to 1) t^4 * (1 - t)^4 / (1 + t^2) > int (0 to 1) t^4*(1-t)^4/2
(since (1+t^2) <= 2 over the interval).
It's not the best bound though.. but it works :D
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Right.
1. int (0 to 1) t^4 * (1 - t)^4 / (1 + t^2) dt (Corrected version)
Expanding the top:
(t^8 - 4t^2 + 6t^6 - 4t^5 + t^4) / (1+t^2)
Taking a factor of (1+t^2) from the numerator:
((1+t^2)(-4/(t^2+1)+t^6-4t^5+5t^4-4t^2+4)) / (1+t^2)
Hence int (0 to 1) t^4 * (1 - t)^4 / (1 + t^2) dt = int (0 to 1) ( -4/(t^2+1)+t^6-4t^5+5t^4-4t^2+4) )
Which can be evaluated.
= [ -4tan-1(t) + t^7/7 - 2t^6/3 + t^5 - 4t^3/3 + 4t ] (0 to 1)
= [ -4*(pi/4) + 1/7 - 2/3 + 1 - 4/3 +4 ] - (zero)
= -pi + 22/7
= 22/7 - pi
(I know there are probably more efficient ways to deduce the answer, but hey... whatever works?)
What's interesting is that 22/7 is the fraction approximation for pi that we learn in like year 8. :P so 22/7 - pi according to year 8 maths is 0. Ah, the lies we're told. :(
Up until this year I still thought that 22/7 was an extremely close approximation of pi.
It was until i got bored at work one day and started dividing 22 by 7 mentally that i realised how quickly they differ in decimal places. :-/
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Well, if I remember correctly it's part of the continued fraction for pi, so in a sense it's the "best" approximation. Try 355/113, which is also part of the continued fractions..
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No ones did the second problem, and it's been a while. It's in the exercise book as well. Come on you guys!! Don't back down the challenge! Want a hint?
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(2x)/(1+(cos(x))^2) is odd so we only need to consider the integral int(-pi to pi) (2x*sin(x))/(1+(cos(x))^2). Integrate by parts - diff the 2x and integrate the rest (I don't do the whole set u = whatever, v = something else because that's n00bish).
Suggestion: Please implement LaTeX if possible. :D
I know the subject's pretty much over for you guys, apart from exams I think but I just thought I'd chip in.;)
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That's an idea, but you didn't finish your solution. I haven't tried it, but it's not obvious to me how to proceed with this method. What do you do after integrating by parts? Please provide a complete solution. :)
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It was more of a hint to others as to how to proceed rather than a personal attempt to get the answer out. One thing I observed whilst actually writing this one out was that over use of properties of the integrand can lead to dead ends. :)
The integral is
I = int(-pi,pi) (2x+2x*sin(x))/(1+(cos(x))^2) dx
= int(-pi,pi) ((2x)/(1+(cos(x))^2))dx + int(-pi,pi) (2x*sin(x))/(1+(cos(x))^2)dx
The first integral is zero because the integrand is odd and so
I = int(-pi,pi) (2x*sin(x))/(1+(cos(x))^2) dx
Rewriting the integral as 2 times an integral from 0 to pi here will actually end up making things more complicated.
= int(-pi,pi) (2x)*((sin(x))/(1+(cos(x))^2)dx
int ((sin(x))/(1+(cos(x))^2) dx = -arctan(cos(x)) + c
=> I = [-2x*arctan(cos(x))]|(-pi,pi) + 2*int(-pi,pi)(arctan(cos(x))) dx
= -2[x*arctan(cos(x))] |(-pi,pi) + 0 since the second integrand is odd
= -2(-(((pi)^2)/4)-(((pi)^2)/4))
So I = (pi)^2.
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Can you justify why:
2*int(-pi,pi)(arctan(cos(x))) dx = 0, you say the integrand is odd, but it isn't. :)
I'll get more problems up when I have time. 8)
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If you've still got some exams to do it's probably best that you concentrate on those for now. Extra questions can come at any time.
Anyway, arctan(x) is an odd function. As long as its argument is continuous, any integral over arctan from (-b,b) (with b a real number) will always be zero.
Edit: Let me check.
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Yes, but for a function to be odd:
f(-x) = -f(x)
Here you have f(x) = arctan[cos(x)]
But, arctan[cos(-x)] isn't equal to -arctan[cos(x)].
You have to use a special argument! :wink:
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int(-pi,pi) arctan(cos(x)) dx
= 2*int(0,pi) arctan(cos(x)) dx
= 2*int(0,pi/2) arctan(cos(x)) dx + 2*int(pi/2,pi) arctan(cos(x)) dx
Let u = pi - x in the first integral then
arctan(cos(x)) = arctan(cos(pi-u)) = arctan(-cos(u))=-arctan(cos(u)) and so
I = 2*int(pi,pi/2) arctan(cos(u)) du + 2*int(pi/2,pi) arctan(cos(x)) dx
= -2*int*(pi/2,pi) arctan(cos(u)) du + 2*int(pi/2,pi) arctan(cos(x)) dx
= 0
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If you need a hint, do ask. It's really great how far you've got already, really well done! :)
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I should hardly need a hint considering that I did this sort of thing two years ago. Periodicity, it took a while to kick in. I'm a bit rusty.;)
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That's correct. Well done. My solution is a little different, but it doesn't matter, they're both good.
Two years ago? You did this in year 10? Good stuff! :wink:
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I'm in 3rd year uni. :D My original intention was to just suggest a way to start this problem since there weren't any attempts. I didn't plan on doing the whole thing.
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Cool. What are you taking in university?
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I'm taking BE/BSc.
Which course do you plan on taking?
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Actuarial studies, so that's BComm I think. Although maths is my hobby/passion! 8)
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Well I hope you have fun taking it. Not sure if you know this already, but after first year a lot of the 'maths' that you would be doing will be prob/stats.
I've always disliked stats but I guess some people would enjoy it.