ATAR Notes: Forum
VCE Stuff => VCE Mathematics => VCE Mathematics/Science/Technology => VCE Subjects + Help => VCE Specialist Mathematics => Topic started by: Lycan on August 02, 2008, 02:50:45 pm
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I just finished a question that I thought was pretty cool so I thought I might give you guys a go.
Prove mathematically that if the speed of a moving particle moving along a curve is constant, the acceleration is perpendicular to the velocity.
The topic is vector calculus if you want a clue.
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Constant velocity means acceleration is zero, not constant speed.
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Constant velocity means that the acceleration is zero and that there is constant speed. (Ohh, okay, I get what you mean now, phagist_)
On the other hand, constant speed does not mean constant velocity.
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If a moving particle is moving with a constant speed, then the acceleration of the particle is zero.
Hence
(where
is some constant), hence 
This result should hold true for any natural number of dimensions of movement.
This doesn't make sense. A dot product should give you a scalar quantity. How come you are getting the zero vector?
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It still remains that a scalar times a vector is a vector, so that does not seem like a correct argument to me.
I would do it by proposing the velocity vector of the form:
,
and then using the fact that:
, where
is some constant,
hence we can find
in terms of
, and then you can find the dot product between the velocity vector and the acceleration vector.
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Take:

Since:
, where
is a constant,


\,\textbf{j})

Therefore:

(Note the plus/minus and minus/plus signs will always produce a negative sign)
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Im sorry, I misread the question as velocity, rather then speed.
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I just finished a question that I thought was pretty cool so I thought I might give you guys a go.
Prove mathematically that if the speed of a moving particle moving along a curve is constant, the acceleration is perpendicular to the velocity.
The topic is vector calculus if you want a clue.


=\frac{d}{dt}(k^2))
Assuming
is defined in 
\times x(t)+y(t)\times y(t)+z(t)\times z(t))
(product rule)
=\left(\frac{dx}{dt},\frac{dy}{dt},\frac{dz}{dt}\right)\cdot \left(x(t),y(t),z(t)\right) + \left(x(t),y(t),z(t)\right) \cdot\left(\frac{dx}{dt},\frac{dy}{dt},\frac{dz}{dt}\right))
(this can be shown for n-dimensions)
(basically, the product rule)


, given that neither
nor
are 0
hence, in general, where the magnitude of velocity is a constant, acceleration is perpendicular to the direction of motion
EDIT: and for dcc's sake, this holds true where velocity is defined and continuous (and in this case, its magnitude is also constant)
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Moderator action: Unmerged by popular request.
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coblin's request*
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Ahmad, dcc and I versus Mao.
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how about:
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how about:
 = \sum_{n = 1}^\infty \dfrac{\left(6 - 6 \cos n \pi \right) \sin \left(n \pi t \right)}{n \pi} \ \vec{i})
is that constant magnitude?
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(http://omploader.org/vbjlz/saw.jpg)
The speed is constant (and sometimes undefined).
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then for intervals where the velocity is continuous (and constant), acceleration will be perpendicular to the direction of motion.
:)
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Im still not convinced that saying that

What about
, does that mean
still holds true?
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Im still not convinced that saying that 
What about
, does that mean
still holds true?
that is a valid point (as for all vectors)
but when neither are zero vectors, that would be true.
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Im still not convinced that saying that 
What about
, does that mean
still holds true?
that is a valid point (as for all vectors)
but when neither are zero vectors, that would be true.
So the question perhaps should of been framed:
"Prove that if the speed of a particle is constant and the particle is accelerating, then the acceleration of the particle is perpendicular to the velocity."
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"Prove that if the speed of a moving particle is constant and the particle has a non-zero acceleration, then the direction of acceleration of the particle is perpendicular to the velocity."
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Eh, the particle was stated to be moving. I also in a 'curve' which was meant to imply non-zero acceleration but then lines are also considered curves aren't they. Anywho, the dot product rule is correct. Although I had:
x^2 + y^2 = c^2 and differentiated both sides in terms of T for a more elegant solution.
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Eh, the particle was stated to be moving. I also in a 'curve' which was meant to imply non-zero acceleration but then lines are also considered curves aren't they. Anywho, the dot product rule is correct. Although I had:
x^2 + y^2 = c^2 and differentiated both sides in terms of T for a more elegant solution.
but that only works for the particular case of
(you can similarly show for higher dimensions, etc)
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It was just a general idea, of course you can simply extend it to n dimensions.
x^2 + y^2 + z^2 ... = c^2
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mind posting up your proof?
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Sure.
Let's just pretend these are all vectors and look nice and stuff.
Let v(t) = x(t)i + y(t)j + z(t)k + ... n dimensions
Speed = ([x(t)]^2 + [y(t)]^2 + [z(t)]^2)^(1/2) + ...= k, where k is a constant
Therefore [x(t)]^2 + [y(t)]^2 + [z(t)]^2 + ... = k^2
d/dt([x(t)]^2 + [y(t)]^2 + [z(t)]^2 + ... ) = d/dt(k^2) = 0
Using chain rule:
2x(t)x'(t) + 2y(t)y'(t) + 2z(t)z'(t) + ... = 0
x(t)x'(t) + y(t)y'(t) + z(t)z'(t) + ... = 0
a(t)= d/dt(v(t)) = x'(t)i + y'(t)j + z'(t)k + ....
a.v = x(t)x'(t) + y(t)y'(t) + z(t)z'(t) + ...= 0
Hence they are perpendicular.
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lolol, your solution is subjected to the same critique dcc gave to mine xD
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lolol, your solution is subjected to the same critique dcc gave to mine xD
Not if he is answering the revised question, which implies that neither
or
are zero :P
p.s. I might add, that if you are trying to prove that two vectors are perpendicular using the dot product, then it is simply not enough to state:
as the last line of your proof
rather, you MUST state:
hence 
Otherwise you have not proved as to whether the two vectors are perpendicular :)
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I realise that. I was just rushing as I was typing it up before heading off to school.