ATAR Notes: Forum
VCE Stuff => VCE Mathematics => VCE Mathematics/Science/Technology => VCE Subjects + Help => VCE Specialist Mathematics => Topic started by: /0 on March 23, 2009, 11:59:29 pm
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If
, show that
and  = Arg(z_1)-Arg(z_2))
Is this sufficient proof?
and
from definitions.
and +Arg(z_2) \in (-\pi, \pi))
and -Arg(z_2) \in (-\pi, \pi))
Therefore the values will be in the same domain.
Also, what about the disparities in domain? What effect does this have on the proof? Thanks
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Is it just me or latex isn't working?
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what do you mean by disparities?
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Like,
is defined between
, but when you add up the arguments with domain
you get
, does that mean the proof is incomplete?
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nope,
, which is a subset of 
so it's all good.
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MAO
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Uhh...I don't think you should be using the 'by definition' step...they're asking you to prove the definition, not the domains I'm pretty certain. I remember doing an algebraic way to prove that definition, but not doing maths for this long has pretty much killed all ability to do Specialist...