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HarveyD

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Harvey's Question Thread
« on: September 09, 2011, 08:14:55 pm »
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1) A body of mass, m, rests on a plane of inclination "a" in limiting equilibrium. Find the co-efficient of friction. If the inclination is increased to "b", find the acceleration down the plane.

a and b are just symbols

2) A parcel rests on a stationary conveyor belt that slopes at an inclination of 30 degrees to the horizontal. The belt begins to move upwards with an increasing acceleration, and when this reaches g/4, the parcel begins to slip.

Calculate the co-efficient of friction between the parcel and the belt.

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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #1 on: September 09, 2011, 08:54:17 pm »
+4
1) Ok so first lets draw a diagram.
Refer to image 1 below.
Friction will be up the plane since it needs to balance the force of gravity down the plane, the reason it needs to balance it is because it is in equlibrium.
We need to find r to find μ, so to do that we need to resolve the forces perpendicular to the plane.
R=mgcos(a) ....1
Next resolve the force parallel to the plane
μR-mgsin(a)=0
so μR=mgsin(a) ....2
or μ=(mgsin(a))/R
Now substitute 1 into 2
μ=(mgsin(a))/mgcos(a)
so the mg's cancel and sin on cos is tan
so μ=tan(a)

Now finding acceleration.
So inclination is increased to b and the object is no longer in equilibrium. So we need to resolee the forces but this time letting the parallel force equal ma (i.e. Fnet)
Perpendicular
so R=mgcos(b)
Parallel
take mgsin(b) first as it will be large as the acceleration is down the plane
mgsin(b)-μR=ma
mgsin(b)-μmgcos(b)=ma
so a=mg(sin(b)-μcos(b))/m
so then a=g(sin(b)-μcos(b)) m/s2

***Alternate solution Essential uses****
Yeh they did it a silly way. this is what they did from the mgsin(b)-μ*R=ma part
as μ=tan(a)
then
then use the sin(x-y)=sin(x)cos(y)-cos(x)sin(y)
to get a=g*sin(b-a)/cos(a)

2) We know that when the acceleration reachers g/4, the particle slips, in other words the maximum friction force has been exerted. So the Frmax=μR=the force under an acceleration of g/4
=mg/4
Now we need just μ so we need to find R and sub it in.
R will be mgcos(30)=mgroot(3)/2 N
Resolve parallel to surface
μR-mgsin(30)=mg/4
μroot(3)/2mg-mg/2=mg/4
cancel the mg's
root(3)μ/2=3/4
μ=(3/2root(3))*root(3)/root(3) (rationalising)
μ=root(3)/2
« Last Edit: September 09, 2011, 09:27:05 pm by b^3 »
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HarveyD

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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #2 on: September 09, 2011, 09:02:40 pm »
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yeah i got the same for 1)
except answers had
acceleration = (g/cos a) sin (b - a)
:S

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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #3 on: September 09, 2011, 09:04:44 pm »
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Where are the questions from?
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HarveyD

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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #4 on: September 09, 2011, 09:12:02 pm »
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essential specialist textbook - chapter 13 review

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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #5 on: September 09, 2011, 09:12:36 pm »
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Yeh they did it a silly way. this is what they did from the mgsin(b)-mu*R=ma part
as μ=tan(a)
then
then use the sin(x-y)=sin(x)cos(y)-cos(x)sin(y)
to get a=g*sin(b-a)/cos(a)

There, was the second one right?
« Last Edit: September 09, 2011, 09:27:35 pm by b^3 »
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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #6 on: September 09, 2011, 09:17:19 pm »
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I swapped a sin for a cos in the second question, let me just fix it
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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #7 on: September 09, 2011, 09:20:51 pm »
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There we go, fixed. I'll just fix up the first question in the original post for anyone else who comes along.
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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #8 on: September 09, 2011, 09:27:43 pm »
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would you be able to draw a diagram for the second one?
i thought it would be mg/4 = uR + mg/2, since the belt is going up the incline and friction acts down?
probably misinterpreted it though :/

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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #9 on: September 09, 2011, 09:32:03 pm »
+1
When it is going up and not slipping friction acts down. But when it starts to slip down, relative to the belt it is moving downwards so friction is up, if that make sense.

EDIT: Keep in mind the arrows for my vectors are not to scale.
« Last Edit: September 09, 2011, 09:38:05 pm by b^3 »
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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #10 on: September 09, 2011, 09:38:50 pm »
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ah yes thats what i was doing wrong
thanks so much!

HarveyD

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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #11 on: September 09, 2011, 11:14:00 pm »
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How would you do this one?

A train that is moving with uniform acceleration is observed to take 20s and 30s to travel successive half kilometres. How much farther will it travel before coming to rest if the acceleration remains constant?

(Question 13 of Chapter Review)

How would I do this :S

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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #12 on: September 10, 2011, 04:40:12 am »
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Given that {t=20, s=500} and {t=50, s=1000}, you can use the above to find u and a. The rest is trivial.
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HarveyD

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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #13 on: September 15, 2011, 04:50:04 pm »
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Thanks!

A 500g ball hits a lake with a speed of 8m/s water resistance is kt Newtons. The ball reaches a maximum depth of 80cm.
Find k and time taken to reach this depth.

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Re: Harvey's Question Thread
« Reply #14 on: September 15, 2011, 04:55:38 pm »
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So the forces involved is the weight force down and the resistance force up
so F=mg-kt
F=0.5g-kt
F=ma
a=F/m
a=(0.5g-kt)/0.5
a=g-2kt
Intergrate this to get velocity
v=gt-kt2+d
t=0, v=8
8=0+0+d
d=8
so v=gt-kt2+8
Intergrate that to get displacement
s=gt2/2 -kt3/3+8t+c
s=0,t=0
0=0-0+0+c
c=0
v=0,s=0.8
find t when s=0.8 (i.e. v=0)
substitute that value of t in to find k
I hope that is all right, I feel like I have made a mistake somewhere.

I have done something wrong somewhere, give me a min.
« Last Edit: September 15, 2011, 05:31:17 pm by b^3 »
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