Not sure about these 2:
4. Suppose a monopolist operated in an industry where the market demand is perfectly elastic (with inverse demand given by P= 30 and its cost function is TC=100+Q + Q2. Calculate the profit maximising P and Q. Would this be any different if the industry is competitive?
Fine with calculating P & Q, but not sure about the second part of the question.
Answer is no. Think about the Q that is set by a monopolist, and the Q set in a perfectly competitive market. In a monopoly, the quantity is set by MR=MC. Now, In a perfectly competitive market, each firm still sets their quantity to MR=MC (they wish to maximise profit. However, because they are price takers, they have to take the price as given, meaning that their marginal revenue is always equal to whatever the prevailing price is. So in a competitive market, P=MR=MC is what sets the quantity.
This is not always the case in a monopolistic market though. Because a monopolist can set the price, the price they charge is not necessarily equal to their marginal revenue for that good. This is typically shown with a downward sloping demand curve, and you draw the marginal revenue curve with a steeper downward slope (I'll assume you know why this is, if you don't just say and I can draw graphs and stuff to show you).
This means, TYPICALLY (i.e, downward sloping demand curve), the marginal revenue for a monopolist drops faster than that in a competitive market, as q increases. Hence, assuming the same cost curves, the monopolist will reach the profit maximising quantity at a lower q than the market (you probably remember this ... monopolists typically crank up the price and reduce quantity).
Although, this typical case doesn't apply in this question! What's different? The demand curve is flat, not downward sloping. So the marginal revenue for a monopolist is equal to P, and in turn equal to the demand curve. So the monopolists MR curve is now the same MR curve as for the competitive market. Hence, the MR=P=MC will be the profit maximising q for the monopolist, as well as for the competitive market. Hence, the same q and P.
If you're still confused I'll draw pictures if you wish.
Not sure about these 2:
5. a. True, False or Uncertain - and why, The difference between price and marginal cost is the amount of profit per unit of output. A monopolist will always set Q and P to make the per unit profit as big as possible
Not the case. They will want to maximise total profit not per unit profit (not the same thing). Lets just say that each good costs $1 to produce. Why sell 1 good for $100 each ($99 per unit profit), when you can sell 10 for $50 each (per unit profit of only 49, but a much greater total profit). It doesn't matter if your per unit profit decreases...as long as selling that additional good makes you any profit at all, then you would do it. See the attached picture.
It'll only be true if you have constant and flat MC and demand curves, because the per unit profit will be the same for all quantities. But for upward sloping MC and/or downward sloping demand curve, then it won't hold.