Uni Stuff > Mathematics
counter-intuitive divergence
/0:
Given the function
We have , and yet, at www.pierce.ctc.edu/dlippman/g1/fullgrapher3d.html, the field is clearly diverging away from the origin AND slowing down.
Why is this?
zzdfa:
copying from wikipedia:
--- Quote ---More rigorously, the divergence is defined as derivative of the net flow of the vector field across the surface of a small region relative to the volume of that region. Formally,
(Image removed from quote.)
--- End quote ---
so if you take smaller and smaller spheres around the centre, i guess the flux across the surface of the sphere gets smaller faster than the volume of the sphere shrinks. hence the ratio tends to 0.
just to clarify; divV=0 only at the origin, right?
/0:
Yeah it seems like divF = 0 everywhere...
I dfon't know if divF is defined at the origin...
zzdfa:
Intuitive explanation:
this is just gauss' law.
take any closed surface not containing the origin in that space (i am pretty sure divF is undefined at 0, maybe not; i cbf doing the calculations); any arrows going into it (flux) is balanced by stuff going out of it. hence the flux is zero and using the definition above, div=0 as well.
/0:
But does it matter that the arrows get shorter as you go out? It's like if you have a closed gaussian surface, the field lines will be stronger at one side than the other
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