nice thread! just discovered, hope it's not too late to post:
2.)
My proof is rather long, so i'll just give an outline and if interested, ask for the details later:
its true for x=y=z=1/3
Wwe have infinitely many combinations (x,y,z). WE know that (1/3,1/3,1/3) works and does not violate the x+y+z=1 condition. How do we get from that combo to something else that doesn't violate this condition, well we can add c to the x value and add -c to the y value. Now evaluate xy+yz+xz for our new combo (1/3 + c,1/3 - c,1/3) and u find that it is equal to 1/3 - c^2 which is obviously less than 1/3.
But this only proves this property for a subset of the combos we want, as one of the values was assumed to be 1/3. Now we want to find the combos that possibly have no 1/3 for any value. In other words, we're going to change the z value a bit: lets say we add d to the z value and to 'fix up' we subtract d from the y value:
now we have the combo (1/3 + c, 1/3 -c - d, 1/3 + d)
This accounts for all posibilities*
*Proof: if we select an x-value we want, we then get a c value we must stick to. Now by choosing a z value we want, we're consequently choosing the d value. Now we're limited to only one y value because c and d we already have and this makes sense because by choosing values for x and z there is only one other y value we can have so that x+y+z=1
Now we must work out xy+yz+xz for that general combo presented above and after a fuckload of algebra we get:
xy+yz+x= 1/3 -c^2-cd-d^2
= 1/3 -((c+d)^2-cd)
And c and d are free paremeters.
Now u must prove that (c+d)^2>cd for all values and ur done.