Login

Welcome, Guest. Please login or register.

February 22, 2026, 01:11:23 am

Author Topic: Is this a valid proof?  (Read 1995 times)  Share 

0 Members and 1 Guest are viewing this topic.

nacho

  • The Thought Police
  • Victorian
  • ATAR Notes Superstar
  • ******
  • Posts: 2602
  • Respect: +418
Is this a valid proof?
« on: March 21, 2011, 04:44:28 pm »
0
 where is false by definition







Proof by contradiction
/end
« Last Edit: March 21, 2011, 04:55:51 pm by nacho »
OFFICIAL FORUM RULE #1:
TrueTears is my role model so find your own

2012: BCom/BSc @ Monash
[Majors: Finance, Actuarial Studies, Mathematical Statistics]
[Minors: Psychology/ Statistics]

"Baby, it's only micro when it's soft".
-Bill Gates

Upvote me

taiga

  • Honorary Moderator
  • ATAR Notes Legend
  • *******
  • Posts: 4085
  • Respect: +588
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #1 on: March 21, 2011, 04:50:12 pm »
0
no
vce: english, methods, spesh, chemistry, physics, geography.

ex admin/mod/partner

2010: Melbourne High School (VCE)
2011 - 2016: Monash University BComm/BEng (Hons)


If you guys have any concerns/suggestions for making ATARNotes a better place, don't hesitate to PM me.

taiga

  • Honorary Moderator
  • ATAR Notes Legend
  • *******
  • Posts: 4085
  • Respect: +588
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #2 on: March 21, 2011, 04:53:26 pm »
0
Well I suspect you are not finished with your post yet so I will edit later if it starts to make more sense to me
vce: english, methods, spesh, chemistry, physics, geography.

ex admin/mod/partner

2010: Melbourne High School (VCE)
2011 - 2016: Monash University BComm/BEng (Hons)


If you guys have any concerns/suggestions for making ATARNotes a better place, don't hesitate to PM me.

BubbleWrapMan

  • Teacher
  • Part of the furniture
  • *
  • Posts: 1110
  • Respect: +97
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #3 on: March 21, 2011, 06:03:54 pm »
0
I'm not sure what you're trying to prove.

Logarithms with negative bases aren't something VCE deals with as far as I know.
Tim Koussas -- Co-author of ExamPro Mathematical Methods and Specialist Mathematics Study Guides, editor for the Further Mathematics Study Guide.

Current PhD student at La Trobe University.

nacho

  • The Thought Police
  • Victorian
  • ATAR Notes Superstar
  • ******
  • Posts: 2602
  • Respect: +418
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #4 on: March 21, 2011, 06:12:01 pm »
0
The proof is showing that you cannot take the log of negatives
I was confused though,
why can't you take the log of a negative number, given that the base is a negative number?

ex.



My friend said that it would not yield a smoothe curve.
But if i were to answer the question correctly, would i put "Undefined" or "3" ?
« Last Edit: March 21, 2011, 06:19:12 pm by nacho »
OFFICIAL FORUM RULE #1:
TrueTears is my role model so find your own

2012: BCom/BSc @ Monash
[Majors: Finance, Actuarial Studies, Mathematical Statistics]
[Minors: Psychology/ Statistics]

"Baby, it's only micro when it's soft".
-Bill Gates

Upvote me

brightsky

  • Victorian
  • ATAR Notes Legend
  • *******
  • Posts: 3136
  • Respect: +200
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #5 on: March 21, 2011, 06:31:45 pm »
0
You technically can have a negative base, but the log function would be very 'retarded'.
Let's define log_a(x) = y, where a < 0. Then a^y = x
When the base is negative, the log would only be defined for when y is an integer, since (-something)^integer is gives -something^3. But when y = 1/(2n), for n E Z, then we have some problems. Consider, say (-2)^(1/2). It's undefined. Consider (-2)^(1/4), it's undefined. Hence if we WERE to sketch the graph, it will be a very screwed up one. Some people say that because not all y yield a defined log function, then the log isn't really defined.
2020 - 2021: Master of Public Health, The University of Sydney
2017 - 2020: Doctor of Medicine, The University of Melbourne
2014 - 2016: Bachelor of Biomedicine, The University of Melbourne
2013 ATAR: 99.95

Currently selling copies of the VCE Chinese Exam Revision Book and UMEP Maths Exam Revision Book, and accepting students for Maths Methods and Specialist Maths Tutoring in 2020!

luffy

  • Victorian
  • Forum Leader
  • ****
  • Posts: 520
  • Respect: +23
  • School Grad Year: 2011
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #6 on: March 21, 2011, 06:40:50 pm »
0
You technically can have a negative base, but the log function would be very 'retarded'.
Let's define log_a(x) = y, where a < 0. Then a^y = x
When the base is negative, the log would only be defined for when y is an integer, since (-something)^integer is gives -something^3. But when y = 1/(2n), for n E Z, then we have some problems. Consider, say (-2)^(1/2). It's undefined. Consider (-2)^(1/4), it's undefined. Hence if we WERE to sketch the graph, it will be a very screwed up one. Some people say that because not all y yield a defined log function, then the log isn't really defined.

Actually, the log function is not defined for when the base is negative, even when you might think it would yield a defined result. It is only valid over the complex field.

This is because a logarithm of any given base is actually defined to be under the natural logarithm "e" using the change of base law. Below is an example:
-> It is defined such that
Therefore, for any negative base, calculations are done using complex numbers:






Therefore, the log function of a negative base does not exist for ANY real values. It only works in the complex plane.

Just thought I would mention it in the methods board :D
« Last Edit: March 21, 2011, 07:08:50 pm by luffy »

nacho

  • The Thought Police
  • Victorian
  • ATAR Notes Superstar
  • ******
  • Posts: 2602
  • Respect: +418
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #7 on: March 21, 2011, 06:45:46 pm »
0
You technically can have a negative base, but the log function would be very 'retarded'.
Let's define log_a(x) = y, where a < 0. Then a^y = x
When the base is negative, the log would only be defined for when y is an integer, since (-something)^integer is gives -something^3. But when y = 1/(2n), for n E Z, then we have some problems. Consider, say (-2)^(1/2). It's undefined. Consider (-2)^(1/4), it's undefined. Hence if we WERE to sketch the graph, it will be a very screwed up one. Some people say that because not all y yield a defined log function, then the log isn't really defined.

Actually, the log function is not defined for when the base is negative, even when you might think it would yield a defined result. It is only valid over the complex field.

This is because a logarithm of any given base base is actually defined to be under the natural logarithm "e" using the change of base law. Below is an example:
-> It is defined such that
Therefore, for any negative base, calculations are done using complex numbers:






Therefore, the log function of a negative base does not exist for ANY real values. It only works in the complex plane.

Just thought I would mention it in the methods board :D
nice work nags
OFFICIAL FORUM RULE #1:
TrueTears is my role model so find your own

2012: BCom/BSc @ Monash
[Majors: Finance, Actuarial Studies, Mathematical Statistics]
[Minors: Psychology/ Statistics]

"Baby, it's only micro when it's soft".
-Bill Gates

Upvote me

dooodyo

  • Guest
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #8 on: March 21, 2011, 08:41:38 pm »
0
how does e^(loge(5)) = 5 ?

Water

  • Victorian
  • Part of the furniture
  • *****
  • Posts: 1136
  • Respect: +116
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #9 on: March 21, 2011, 08:44:09 pm »
0
e^(loge(5)) = 5



General Rule:


f(x) composite f-1(x) = x

In other words.
f(f-1(x)) = x   



« Last Edit: March 21, 2011, 08:47:24 pm by Water »
About Philosophy

When I see a youth thus engaged,—the study appears to me to be in character, and becoming a man of liberal education, and him who neglects philosophy I regard as an inferior man, who will never aspire to anything great or noble. But if I see him continuing the study in later life, and not leaving off, I should like to beat him - Callicle

Souljette_93

  • Victorian
  • Part of the furniture
  • *****
  • Posts: 1092
  • Respect: +4
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #10 on: March 21, 2011, 08:49:03 pm »
0
how does e^(loge(5)) = 5 ?

They're the inverse of each other, so they cancel out i.e.  x * 1/x =1
Ancient Persian Proverb; " I Wept because i had no Shoes, until i saw a man with no feet!"

First they came for the Socialists, and I did not speak out --
Because I was not a Socialist.
Then they came for the Trade Unionists, and I did not speak out --
Because I was not a Trade Unionist.
Then they came for the Jews, and I did not speak out --
Because I was not a Jew.
Then they came for me -- and there was no one left to speak for me.
-Martin Niemoller, a german pastor

dooodyo

  • Guest
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #11 on: March 21, 2011, 09:22:11 pm »
0
Oh haha thanks but how would you prove it?

nacho

  • The Thought Police
  • Victorian
  • ATAR Notes Superstar
  • ******
  • Posts: 2602
  • Respect: +418
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #12 on: March 21, 2011, 09:59:27 pm »
0
how does e^(loge(5)) = 5 ?

let

then

hopefully, VCAA finds that to be an acceptable proof :D
« Last Edit: March 21, 2011, 11:01:25 pm by nacho »
OFFICIAL FORUM RULE #1:
TrueTears is my role model so find your own

2012: BCom/BSc @ Monash
[Majors: Finance, Actuarial Studies, Mathematical Statistics]
[Minors: Psychology/ Statistics]

"Baby, it's only micro when it's soft".
-Bill Gates

Upvote me

Water

  • Victorian
  • Part of the furniture
  • *****
  • Posts: 1136
  • Respect: +116
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #13 on: March 21, 2011, 10:03:29 pm »
0
Basic equations to prove it.


y = 2x

Inverse

y= x/2




Composite of f(f-1) = 2(x/2)
                           = x


Composite function f(f-1)  , if x = 1  

           2(1/2) = 1

If x = 2

  2(2/2) = 2






Normal Function


2^x


Inverse Function

log2 (x) = y  


f(f-1) = 2^log2(x)


If the composite function had x = 2

                       2^log2(2) = 2^1 = 2

If the composite function had x = 4

                  2^log2(4)

                  2 ^ 2 = 4

Therefore 2^log2(x) = x


Thereby means.

Normal Function, Composite with Its Inverse = x
« Last Edit: March 21, 2011, 10:08:50 pm by Water »
About Philosophy

When I see a youth thus engaged,—the study appears to me to be in character, and becoming a man of liberal education, and him who neglects philosophy I regard as an inferior man, who will never aspire to anything great or noble. But if I see him continuing the study in later life, and not leaving off, I should like to beat him - Callicle

brightsky

  • Victorian
  • ATAR Notes Legend
  • *******
  • Posts: 3136
  • Respect: +200
Re: Is this a valid proof?
« Reply #14 on: March 21, 2011, 10:12:19 pm »
0
let

then

hopefully, VCAA finds that to be an acceptable proof :D

Yep, this is the most straightforward one.
2020 - 2021: Master of Public Health, The University of Sydney
2017 - 2020: Doctor of Medicine, The University of Melbourne
2014 - 2016: Bachelor of Biomedicine, The University of Melbourne
2013 ATAR: 99.95

Currently selling copies of the VCE Chinese Exam Revision Book and UMEP Maths Exam Revision Book, and accepting students for Maths Methods and Specialist Maths Tutoring in 2020!