Hey Rui,
thanks for that - didn't realise how hard that question was
also, how did you know to change sinnx to sinn-1sinx ?
A bit of backtracking: I realised at an early onset that \( I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^n x\,dx - \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^{n+2} x \, dx\). But then I ignored that observation and kept trying to find smart ways to do this problem and surely enough, I was getting nowhere. So I started going back to my first idea and thought about how to handle the reduction formula for \(J_n = \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^n x\,dx \). I recalled that for
that one, I always had to split it into \( \sin x \sin^{n-1} x\) regardless. So (albeit with some reluctance) I decided to do that for this one as well. Thankfully it worked.
Hey Rui, back again. 4u curve sketching question here and I'd like to know how exactly they got the integral graph to approach 2 in the final part, as x approaches negative infinity. Also, I had my own kind of way of doing f(e^x), was wondering if there is method to it coz mine is kind of dodgy. Thankyou very much.
I don't see at all why the integral graph should approach 2. In fact, I don't know what it should approach at all - the only thing I know is that it must approach something greater than 0.
I would've done \(f(e^x)\) the same way I did \( f(x^2)\) tbh, which is also dodgy. When the transformation is under the brackets I usually don't rely on a toolkit, but rather visualise what's going on in my head. In a way, I visualise a "stretching" animation of the original graph.
Although, some things that are useful to note:
\( \lim_{x\to -\infty} f(e^x) = f(0) \), which is equal to 2 in this case so we expect our graph to asymptotically approach 2 towards the left
As \(x\to \infty\), \(f(e^x) \) is really just tending towards \( \lim_{x\to \infty}f(x) \), so we expect it to asymptotically approach 0 towards the right as well