VCE General & Further Maths Question Thread!

[addictwithatextbook]

The critical path is AEIJ and is 15 days long.
The path CGJM is 14 days and so each of these activities has a float time of one.
The path CHM is 13 days which means H must have a float of two because C and M are known to have a float of one from above.

Thanks heaps, plato! 

[merryn_hall]

Can someone please explain a foolproof way to do Hungarian algorithm
 

[TheCommando]

Pls help, my sac is in 2 days
https://imgur.com/a/ysHVu
Not sure how to do q15

[Peter Griffin]

Pls help, my sac is in 2 days
https://imgur.com/a/ysHVu
Not sure how to do q15

I need the full image of the graph to help you with that question..

[Ashjames]

hey guys,


I was just doing a question that required me to find 22.3% of 5170000. However when a get my answer it says 1.15291E6. What does the E mean?

[www]

hey guys,


I was just doing a question that required me to find 22.3% of 5170000. However when a get my answer it says 1.15291E6. What does the E mean?

Think of the E as 10 to the power of X, where X is the number after it - so E6 would be 10^6.

1.15291E6 means to multiply 1.15291 and 10^6 (in other words, move the decimal point 6 times to the right), which gives you 1152910!

[Ashjames]

Think of the E as 10 to the power of X, where X is the number after it - so E6 would be 10^6.

1.15291E6 means to multiply 1.15291 and 10^6 (in other words, move the decimal point 6 times to the right), which gives you 1152910!

ohhhhh I get it. Thanks so much [that was the correct answer on the practice test I was doing btw]

[TheCommando]

https://imgur.com/a/oeEBU
Hey guys just some questions in that link, i wrote it on the paper except on c annd d, how do i do that

[EEEEEEP]

https://imgur.com/a/oeEBU
Hey guys just some questions in that link, i wrote it on the paper except on c annd d, how do i do that

250, 000 x 1.005 = 251250 - Value before withdrawl
THUS
Interest = 250k - 250.1250K = 1250 =)

[Shadowxo]

https://imgur.com/a/oeEBU
Hey guys just some questions in that link, i wrote it on the paper except on c annd d, how do i do that

I'll answer a couple more questions for you
4. It looks like you need to go over sequences. a) If t_n+1=3t_n-4, then you know the value of a term is the 3*(previous term) -4. So t₁=3*t₀-4 = 3*2 -4=6-4 = 2 which is the same as t₀. So every term in the sequence is the same, which is unusual because they often change (for 1 mark I imagine you'd only need to say it's unusual because every term is 2).
b) it's actually the Fibonacci sequence with some different starting terms (but you don't need to know that). You should be able to see from the rule that a term is equal to the previous term + the term before that, ie the sum of the past 2 terms. So the sequence goes 3, 4, 3+4=7, 7+4=11, 11+7=18 etc ie 3,4,7,11,18.

For 6d (depreciation)
Method 1: It starts off at 150000 and decreases by 15% of the original price per year. So decreases by 0.15*150000= 22500 per year
So the value is 150000-22500*n
Method 2: The value reduces by 20% per year. So initial value is 150000, value after a year is 0.8*150000, value after two years is 0.8*0.8*150000. You were on the right track.
Value is initial value * 0.8ⁿ = 0.8ⁿ * 150000

[TheCommando]

250, 000 x 1.005 = 251250 - Value before withdrawl
THUS
Interest = 250k - 250.1250K = 1250 =)

Thank you! that make sense
its just that the solutions were literally just answers and didnt explain much

I'll answer a couple more questions for you
4. It looks like you need to go over sequences. a) If t_n+1=3t_n-4, then you know the value of a term is the 3*(previous term) -4. So t₁=3*t₀-4 = 3*2 -4=6-4 = 2 which is the same as t₀. So every term in the sequence is the same, which is unusual because they often change (for 1 mark I imagine you'd only need to say it's unusual because every term is 2).
b) it's actually the Fibonacci sequence with some different starting terms (but you don't need to know that). You should be able to see from the rule that a term is equal to the previous term + the term before that, ie the sum of the past 2 terms. So the sequence goes 3, 4, 3+4=7, 7+4=11, 11+7=18 etc ie 3,4,7,11,18.

For 6d (depreciation)
Method 1: It starts off at 150000 and decreases by 15% of the original price per year. So decreases by 0.15*150000= 22500 per year
So the value is 150000-22500*n
Method 2: The value reduces by 20% per year. So initial value is 150000, value after a year is 0.8*150000, value after two years is 0.8*0.8*150000. You were on the right track.
Value is initial value * 0.8ⁿ = 0.8ⁿ * 150000

Thank you so much! Super helpful!!

[ImmaculateJeff]

Pls help, my sac is in 2 days
https://imgur.com/a/ysHVu
Not sure how to do q15

It is C because none of the numbers can connect to themselves which D shows

[Angelx001]

On the CAS, is 'finance solver' ONLY for compound interest (i.e. not simple interest)?

[Ashjames]

Think of the E as 10 to the power of X, where X is the number after it - so E6 would be 10^6.

1.15291E6 means to multiply 1.15291 and 10^6 (in other words, move the decimal point 6 times to the right), which gives you 1152910!

Okay, I know what the annoying E' means on the calculator, but is there any way to get rid of it? Because my answers for the extended response are always wrong when I divide huge numbers [mainly because of that annoying E']

[zofromuxo]

On the CAS, is 'finance solver' ONLY for compound interest (i.e. not simple interest)?

By CAS, I'm assuming Classpad II model.
You can use simple interest with finanical solver by clearing the going into Edit => Clear All => Ok
It will then take you to the main menu, where you should see Simple Interest as the first choice on the list.