Hi Susie!! This is an awesome question, and I'm struggling to pick one or the other! There are definitely cases to make for both, and I believe it's deeply tied to one's 'school' (or at least 'purpose').
I think it is quite a tricky question as well - definitely no clear answer, but there never is in history extension
I tried my best to replicate an exam style question with this one - will post another tonight
And I most certainly agree - the school/purpose of a historian is going to radically change the way in which this question is perceived - so keen to work out which one you fall under
Those from revisionist and post-modern schools, as well as those seeking to write *historiography* (as opposed to emprircists, etc. and those who seek to write *history*) are considerable more likely, in my opinion, to place more emphasis on analysis/interpretation.
Interesting distinction, that for the most part I agree with you on! However remember that there are some empiricist historiographers as well - Geoffrey Elton for example! But yes, for the most part I agree - a lot of it comes down to this notion of objectivity. If you believe that objectivity is attainable, then it has to be obtained from somewhere - sources, which would explain the empiricist position (and vice versa).
But I'm going to have to go with the latter option! Sources, compiled initially with their own biases and perspectives, are (inevitably) subject to a inherently subjective analysis from the historian! Von Ranke is a great example: despite positing a historical methodology as free from personal bias as humanly possible, he heavily favored primary sources and therefore placed significance on certain sources over others.
I love that despite how nuanced this debate is, you have still taken a strong stance - shows your voice
Von Ranke is a fantastic example that i'm so glad you mentioned! Structurally speaking his methodology is imo undeniably great - like there hasn't been another methodology that has taken over - find sources, analyse sources, make a judgement on sources, write about source findings. No one is ever going to top that. However it is very easy to accept that at face value, and just assume that there are no flaws to the way in which it was conducted. Though I do believe Von Ranke has been unfairly treated by historiographers (particularly the mistranslation of "how it
essentially (not actually) was"), he definitely isn't faultless, and he set the precedent that the only "worthwhile" sources were primary, official documents - which I wholeheartedly disagree with. So glad that we have historians such as Bernard Porter smashing this suggestion to pieces, as he looked at such a range of sources when writing "the Absent Minded Imperialist" - including working class prints, literature and school textbooks, that so often get neglected, but reveal a whole new (and arguably more real) side to history!
I can't help but disagree with this on a few fronts! It's pretty naive to believe that dates, figures and names aren't subject to even a small degree of subjectivity. It's kinda hard to order my thoughts on this, so I'm gonna break it down into dot points
Literally so pumped that someone mentioned this!!
a) Dates are entirely subject to a totally made up system of ordered chronology!!
The various ways people have recorded time over time (lol) is incredibly diverse! No one living in the ancient world decided that they were living in year -100, of course. We've retrospectively inflicted this system upon them. Then, of course, these dates could be fabricated/entirely false (for a number of reasons; propaganda/cover-ups, miscommunication/mistranslation, etc.)
Such a unique, interesting argument, that I didn't consider when reading through the source, yet so totally true! It's so interesting how we categorise the past, and where we establish breaks. Like the Renaissance for example - such a shaky shaky time period (if we can even call it that!). One of my students wrote her major work on this issue. How do we distinguish between the Medieval period, the Renaissance and the Enlightenment? Our interpretation is almost entirely based on these notions of different forms/styles art, culture and philosophy - overwhelmingly "intellectual" upper-class pursuits, that were not reflective of the general populace. Did those who were living in the Renaissance feel the transition between the Renaissance and the Enlightenment? Hell no! As you say, we placed that period break on the past retrospectively. I wonder what our period will be known as in 1000 years? (if humanity makes it that far).
Also love your final point about how dates can be both purposely and accidentally wrong as well! Can you think of any examples of this happening?
Of course, these systems are even MORE problematic when one considers the negative effects of periodization - we organize certain dates within deeply stereotypical categories which (i) remove context, (ii) enforce a easily understood 'status quo' which ignores outliers and (iii) is subject to our perceptions of both the past and the present (in that we both form 'expectations' of certain periods - i.e. The Medieval period was one of supposed academic stagnation - and we apply realities of the present onto the past - i.e. the "kitchen bench in Pomepii" fiasco)
Exactly what I was refering too above! Fantastic examples as well - for those who don't know about the "kitchen bench in Pompeii", Sarah is referring to, Mary Beard, a famous British historian, discovered that a stone slab found in Pompeii, that had originally been believed to be a kitchen bench top was actually an alter (most likely a Lararium, given its household nature). This is just such a classic example of how we look at history through a "modern day" lens - trying to find both what divides us, and unites us from and with past peoples, cultures and societies. That is why I believe that history is in many ways an attempt to learn about the present, as we base much of our understanding of the past upon the ways in which they are similar and dissimilar to ourselves. Like archaeologists literally just saw a stone slab in what was believed to be a "kitchen" (which is furthermore a very arbitrary assessment - as we now know that the rooms of houses in Pompeii were multipurpose) and thought - "well in our kitchens we need a place to prepare food, so this must be the ancient version of that!".
Of course, no body is saying documented events didn't happen at all (although, we do have to take into account the roles of religion and simply sheer imagination in history, especially the histories of ancient times - Alexander the Great comes to mind, especially the story of the Gordian Knot). Rather, that the 'definite' figure pinned to events, especially in terms of chronology, is fraught with subjectivity.
Another great point! Particularly when it comes to Ancient history, there are so many "events" (and cities, personalities, etc.) that have apparently happened/existed that we aren't 100% sure about. Lycurgus is a great example from Ancient Sparta - the potentially mythical leader who brought about the "Great Rhetra" (Spartan constitution). The city of Atlantis, and whether it was actually a real city is another. My favourite example though is probably the City of Troy. Based upon the description of Troy in Homer's 'The Iliad' - the actual archeological dig has revealed multiple cities. Assumptions have been made as to which of these cities is actually Troy - but no definitive answer has been reached. Heinrich Schliemann (who took credit for the discovery) haphazardly blasted his way down to the second city in the stratigraphy, where he found what he believed were the jewels that once belonged to Helen of Troy. He was incorrect - these jewels were actually 1000 years older than the time described in Homer's ' The Iliad' and today archaeologists believe that the sixth and seventh oldest cities found in layers at Hisarlik are the best candidates for the Troy of The Iliad. A little bit off topic, but just further demonstrates that sometimes the supposedly "objective' "who, where, what, when" can often be far from it!
b) Figures - stats, ages, etc. are DEFINITELY not objective either!!
There a a MYRIAD of ways 'statistics', ages and other factors can be skewed by history! The most obvious I can think of is sheer propaganda/governmental cover-ups (you can probably tell I don't trust governments much ); inflating or deflating numbers to support political agendas is incredibly common!
Happens all the time! WW1 propaganda is a great example of this (particularly the German side, who would often just completely make up stats in order to keep morale high on the home front). Perhaps a controversial example, but many believe that the death rates of the Soviet Union under Stalinism have also been artificially inflated to support the Western anti-communist agenda, due to the fact that at the same time population growth was extremely high - which does not corroborate with the millions of people Stalin supposedly killed at the time. (just want to clarify here - though I do think it is important to think critically about the way in which the Soviet Union and communism as an ideology is presented by Western/American society, particularly during the Cold War period, this is by no means an attempt to suggest that Stalin was a "good guy" who has been unfairly treated by history, or to minimise the atrocities committed under his regime, just an interesting example!).
Another, quite important factor is that statistics - especially those from wars - are often estimations and/or are rounded up/down. The figures presented by important institutions (as they almost always are) are pretty much always skewed towards the agenda of the source in this way - even simply rounding a number up or down relates back to biases.
Also super shaky in the way these stats are interpreted, especially "casualty" stats, as there isn't really a universally accepted definition of a "casualty". I for one always assumed casualty meant death - like you weren't a casualty unless you had been killed. However only recently was I informed that injury is also taken into account within these stats, which I felt was a little bit iffy, as just from that one number you cannot distinguish the severity of a situation. For example you could have two situations with 100 casualties - however one of them had only two survivors that were badly injured, while the other had only two deaths, while all others survived with injury. If we were just given the stat and no other info, we would probably assume that these two events were just as bad as the other, despite the fatality stats of the prior being much higher. Furthermore, how do we assess to what extent an injury is bad enough to be considered a casualty?
Linguistic relativism is also deeply important when viewing sources!! It presents pretty major problem: translations will never truly capture the entirety of a message due to (i) the innate biases of a translator (this can be seen in a number of ways - whether the translator is possibly un/sympathetic to a certain event/nationality/etc. and/or the desire to constantly relate language to the translator's reality - one often struggles to understand concepts that have no place in their relative reality! How can someone who's lived in a house and buys groceries comprehend the ideas behind, say, a nomadic hunter?) , and (ii) the fact that some words express concepts that simply don't have translations for (German is a great example of a language that expresses complex emotions and ideas with no simple translations into English - we all indulge in some schadenfreude every now and again, but it's pretty hard to express ) Again, no one is arguing an event didn't necessarily happen - but one can't and shouldn't take supposed "facts" as objective when they are in fact open to a number of possible 'skews'.
This all reminds me of the controversy surrounding Aisha bint Abi Bakr - as a personal contributor to the Hadith, she affirms that she was married to the Prophet Muhammad at age 9 (obviously viewed quite poorly in today's terms, but it was pretty par for the course within her context). Despite her explicitly stating this age, scholars STILL debate whether this is accurate or not, showing that supposed 'definite figures' are very much open to questioning.
Awesome point! Often "objective" sentences, just relaying the facts are far from it! A student was giving me an example of this recently in one of our sessions. Consider these two sentences: "Bombs fell on Baghdad", "Bombs were dropped on Baghdad" though both are objectively true, they are subjective in their construction. The first one omits the action committed - it doesn't assert that the bombs fell as a result of someone purposely dropping them on the city. The second takes this into account, but it doesn't detail who dropped them, and also doesn't detail why. Even sentences that are "objective" can reveal their subjectivity through their construction and omission!
Also fantastic example! I didn't realise this was a historiographical debate - how interesting!
c) Finally, all sources (even figures, stats and other numbers) are interpretations of events!
While this is a argument that's been woven into my last two points, I think it merits it's own point!
It's pretty obvious of course, and I don't think many would argue with me on this, but it brings up one of my fave pieces of art - The Treachery of Images. ((I tried to insert the image but I'm hopeless lol - but the gist is, it's a drawing of a pipe with the words "This is not a pipe" underneath))
Flashbacks to year 9 Visual Arts right now omg aha - Magritte right? This is the image I believe you are referring too!
The point the painting - and I - are trying to make is that it's actually a DRAWING (aka. representation) of a pipe, not an actual pipe. What I'm trying to say is that no matter how supposedly accurate your perspective/understanding of a situation is (and how good your drawing of a pipe is ) it's always merely a representation of events. ALL primary sources, including statistics, names, dates, ages, etc. are always gonna be subject to SOMETHING historiographical, no matter how "objective" they seem.
***On a side note: why do numbers have such a sense of "objectivity" or "logic" to them?? As if numbers aren't just as influenced by historiography as language?? It's always frustrated me
100% agree with you here! We can never fully grasp history, just the essence of it. This was really highlighted to me today actually - just got back from watching Dunkirk. As I have detailed on this thread I usually hate historical fiction, but I'll admit right now this movie was spectacular, and I think one of the reasons I thought it was so good is that it had such a strong sense of realism. Like I genuinely believe that movie is the closest any of us will ever get to experience what it was like during WWII (one of the last remaining soliders from Dunkirk actually watched the film recently and remarked it's accuracy, which I think it very interesting!), and I strongly urge everyone to go see it - an absolutely fantastic film. But even so, even though I believe it got very close to what it would actually be like - it is still only a representation. I am still sitting in a cinema theatre, knowing that I am safe, and knowing that all the actors are safe as well. Again, quite a bit off topic aha, but still thought it was relevant to this discussion of representation and objectivity.
I AGREE with you when it comes to numbers - though I wonder if that is just because I have never understood them very well to begin with
This also bothers me, to a certain degree. The assumption here is (if I've read this correctly) is that historians naturally reach the same / similar interpretations due to the fact that evidence has an 'essence' of objectivity at it's heart. And while I agree that there is an objectivity that can be found in so-called 'lower-order facts' (maybe I'm more of a relativist in this sense - at no point will I argue that, say, the Holocaust didn't happen). But at the same time, I do firmly believe one can reach conclusions that can both (i) exist parallel to other interpretations and (ii) even contradict evidence in certain regards!! For example, take Australian indigenous populations and their contact with European imperialist powers - if all sources (presumably almost entirely from the Western perspective, as Australian indigenous didn't have written language ***pls correct me if I'm wrong***) suggest that the indigenous people are, say, savage/uncivilized/unintelligent, one isn't forced to agree with this! Indeed, it would be both deeply offensive and incredibly wrong to assume that just because such evidence states this.
Thanks for the question!!
- Sarah
Fantastic point! History is most definitely related to power after all - i'm sure we have all heard the phrase "history is written by the winners". What a great example you have used also. Another example I can think of is the way in which supposedly "mad" figures of antiquity, such as Gaius/Caligula have endured such as negative legacy. Really some of our only evidence of this comes from Ancient historians such as Tacitus and Suetonius (who if you study the Julio-Claudians in Ancient you will know have a very very strong bias against the Julio-Claudian dynasty from which Gaius comes from, with a, imo, very explicit aim to discredit this dynasty in order to vicariously critique the current) - our sources, who are frought with a very clear and detrimental bias, and in turn have shaped history. We view his actions as "crazy" - such as him ordering the Army, currently on expedition to conquer Britain to "pick up seashells", and making his favourite horse Ignatius consul - when really, "seashells" is potentially a mistranslation of "tent" (which would make more sense), and making his horse consul was more likely an act of opposition against the Senate, suggesting that they were not fulling their duties effectively, and that a horse could do a better job.
Thank you so much for your responses! Some really fantastic argument here. Sorry it took me a while to answer - wanted to make sure I could deal with each argument properly
Susie