hi everyone, i got this question in a practice sac and need help (5 marks)
I understand that iron ore is considered inelastic to countries such as Japan and China, and therefore demand would remain constant despite the increase in price. i also understand that increasing price, balanced with inelastic demand, would increase profits to australia.
However in the answers it states that AD is increased due to a rise in export income?? What does this mean and why does AD increase?
AD stands for aggregate demand. Was the question from an AOS1 sac or AOS2 sac? If it was an AOS1 sac, it's a bad question as AD is not part of the key knowledge for that AOS. If it was from a AOS2 SAC it's still a bit of a funny question as degree of elasticity/inelasticity isn't explicitly included in macroeconomics key knowledge in AOS2.
Aggregate demand is a macroeconomic concept and can be defined as "the total amount consumers, business and/or government are willing and able to spend on goods and services in an economy, during an given period of time".
The formula for aggregate demand is in the below spoiler:
Spoiler
AD=consumption expenditure (final goods and services purchased by consumers + Investment expenditure (essentially businesses purchasing capital)+G1 (government spending on final goods and services)+G2 (government spending on capital/investment items)+net exports (which is the total amount of exports from the economy less the total amount of imports into the economy.
In short AD=C+I+G1+G2+(X-M)
Thus following the AD formula we can see that when export values increase, net export would increase, thus increasing aggregate demand.
Going further the inelasticity of the market for many of Australia's exports means that net exports is likely to increase during times of rising export prices, as demand would not fall, thus export values being quanity*price of exports would rise. Thus aggregate demand is likely to rise during times of inelastic export price rises.