You mean, does f(x)=0 and g(x) = 0 become asymptotes? The answer is it depends. I personally think there is no reason to try and see a set rule, and rather just sketch the functions using known methods wherever required. Although usually, yes they do become asymptotes too.
edit: Maybe I should provide more reasoning. When f(x) = 0, g(x) = 0, you get vertical asymptotes (because diving by zero gets you infinity). These asymptotes are almost always preserved, and the only time it doesn't is when they cancel each other out (think about infinity minus infinity). This can result in the the 'asymptote' going to some constant number, or even to infinity again (think about if you get infinity(1) minus infinity(2) where infinity(1) is 'bigger', so the overal effect goes to 1).
example: 1/x^2 - 1/x