ATAR Notes: Forum
		VCE Stuff => VCE Mathematics => VCE Mathematics/Science/Technology => VCE Subjects + Help => VCE Specialist Mathematics => Topic started by: Special At Specialist on February 08, 2012, 05:36:05 pm
		
			
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				This is my specialist maths question thread for all of the problems that I am having trouble with. Please try to help me as much as possible. Thank you in advance :)
ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AB is parallel to and 3 times the length of CD. If CD = a and AD = b then BC in terms of a and b is equal to:
A) 3b
B) b - 4a
C) -3b
D) 2a - b
E) 2a + b
I chose option B but apparently I'm wrong.
			 
			
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				E) 2a + b
A handy way to think about this is to trace the known vectors in order to get from B to C.
so (BA = 3a) + (AD = b) + (DC = -a)
therefore, 3a + b + (-a)
 = 3a + b - a
 = 2a + b
			 
			
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				Thanks fletch-j! I have a new problem:
a, b and c are non-zero position vectors. The angle between vectors a and b is pi/4 and the angle between vectors a and c is pi/3. For the vectors to be linearly dependent, the angle between vectors b and c must be:
A) 5pi/12
B) 7pi/12
C) pi/2
D) pi/12 or 7pi/12
E) 5pi/12 or 7pi/12
I chose option A but I was wrong. Please help me solve this problem.
I think the answer was meant to be either D or E, but I'm not sure.
			 
			
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				D
			
 
			
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				Thanks, but would you care to explain why?
			
 
			
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				for linearly dependency, a=mb+nc right? If you draw a line and call it a, you can draw vector b and c since you have the angle from vector a. To find the angle between b and c all you do is subtract the angle between a and b from the angle between a and c, which is pi/12. As for 7pi/12, remember they are vectors, they can be facing the same or opposite direction, if they are facing the same direction its pi/12 and if they are in opposite direction its 7pi/12.
			
 
			
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				For them to be linearly dependent all 3 position vectors must be on the same plane. There are only 2 possible arrangements of the vectors from O, either in order of a, b, c or c, a, b. In the first case the angle is pi/12, second case 7pi/12.
			
 
			
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				Thanks, that kind of makes sense.
Now I have another problem:

Would we be expected to solve integrals like this in a tech free exam? How would I go about such a problem? I can't use substitution because there is nothing on the numerator and I can't use partial fractions since I cannot factorise the denominator.
			 
			
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No, that's too complicated for an exam,  Is probably fine for an exam, maybe a 4 mark question 
I'm struggling with it myself. edit: remembered how to do stuff like this thanks to the formula sheet =.=

^2 + 2}dx)





} +c)
			 
			
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				Thanks pi! Using your method, I actually managed to prove a general case of:
 where 
 + C)
http://img830.imageshack.us/img830/3774/mathsproblem16.png
Moderator action: removed real name, sorry for the inconvenience
			 
			
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				Two vectors are given by a = -i - 2j + k and b = 2i + j + k. Find the acute angle between the vectors.
Usually I would just do the dot product, but this is what happens:
a . b = -2 - 2 + 1
a . b = -3
|a| = sqrt(1 + 4 + 1)
|a| = sqrt(6)
|b| = sqrt(4 + 1 + 1)
|b| = sqrt(6)
a . b = |a||b|cos(θ)
-3 = 6cos(θ)
cos(θ) = -1/2
θ = 2pi/3 or θ = 4pi/3
But an acute angle is where 0<θ<pi/2. Please help me!
			 
			
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Two vectors are given by a = -i - 2j + k and b = 2i + j + k. Find the acute angle between the vectors.
Usually I would just do the dot product, but this is what happens:
a . b = -2 - 2 + 1
a . b = -3
|a| = sqrt(1 + 4 + 1)
|a| = sqrt(6)
|b| = sqrt(4 + 1 + 1)
|b| = sqrt(6)
a . b = |a||b|cos(θ)
-3 = 6cos(θ)
cos(θ) = -1/2
θ = 2pi/3 or θ = 4pi/3
But an acute angle is where 0<θ<pi/2. Please help me!
The obtuse angle is 2pi/3, so the acute angle is pi - 2pi/3 = pi/3
			 
			
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				How did you come to that conclusion? Did you move the vectors around?
			
 
			
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How did you come to that conclusion? Did you move the vectors around?
Just looking at the angles here. Maybe a diagram will help: 
(http://i.imgur.com/vs2AN.gif)
If you look at the x-axis, 2pi/3 is the angle from the positive x-axis. So if you want to figure out the angle from the negative x-axis (the red bit in the diagram) and you know that the x-axis is a straight line (180 degrees, or pi radians), so pi - 2pi/3 would make sense. 
I guess you can just think of it circular functions type stuff. 2pi/3 is in the second quadrant and then find the equivalent angle in the first quadrant. 
			 
			
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				What is a co-domain? I always see functions expressed something like this:
f : [5, inf) -> R, f(x) = 2 + sqrt(x - 5)
So you can see from this function that the domain is [5, inf) and the range is [2, inf). But the range isn't written down; only the domain and co-domain are.
What is the co-domain? Why is it just R? Can you please give me an example of a function where the co-domain isn't R?
			 
			
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What is a co-domain? I always see functions expressed something like this:
f : [5, inf) -> R, f(x) = 2 + sqrt(x - 5)
So you can see from this function that the domain is [5, inf) and the range is [2, inf). But the range isn't written down; only the domain and co-domain are.
What is the co-domain? Why is it just R? Can you please give me an example of a function where the co-domain isn't R?
The co-domain are the numbers that contain the range, while the range is the numbers that do come out of the function (in other words, the range is a subset of the co-domain). For the range [2, inf), the co-domain for that is Real (because the numbers between 2 and infinity are Real numbers). 
This function would have a co-domain of integers:
f: J --> J, where f(x) = 5x
			 
			
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What is a co-domain? I always see functions expressed something like this:
f : [5, inf) -> R, f(x) = 2 + sqrt(x - 5)
So you can see from this function that the domain is [5, inf) and the range is [2, inf). But the range isn't written down; only the domain and co-domain are.
What is the co-domain? Why is it just R? Can you please give me an example of a function where the co-domain isn't R?
i think the co-domain is the set of possible values which may be produced, when the specific domain is applied to the equation. the range  is the ACTUAL values which are produced. e.g.
if dom was [1,4], and the codomain was [1,10], and your equation is, say, y=x+1, 
then your range is, [2,3,4,5]. 
so codomain is like what may possibly be obtained, whereas range is the actual/obtained values you get when you 'plug' your x-values into the equation.
the codomain thus wont = R when you have:
f:[1,2,3,4,5] --> [1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10], f(x) = x+1 
			 
			
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				So does that mean that the range is restricted by all 3 of these:
- The implied range
- The given range
- The codomain
And I have to find the values of the range which lie within all 3? And then to restrict it even further is the actual domain which will only produce certain values to begin with.
			 
			
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				just to re-emphasize what has been said, but diagrammatically, i find the diagram on the wiki page to be very helpful, check it out: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Codomain2.SVG
			 
			
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So does that mean that the range is restricted by all 3 of these:
- The implied range
- The given range
- The codomain
And I have to find the values of the range which lie within all 3? And then to restrict it even further is the actual domain which will only produce certain values to begin with.
the range will definitely be restricted by codomain, and the actual domain as you've said, and i reckon your other points would be other restrictions too, (by 'given range' i guess you mean that they have specifically stated that the range is [a,b]) . implied domain - yeah makes sense, if you had, 
, x cannot equal 1 thus the implied domain , if not already explicitly stated, would have to be implied to be [1,inf), or R+,  and thus implied range is also restricted. 
 just to be sure, someone more mathematical than me will have to confirm that ! 
			 
			
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				Okay thanks for clearing that up.
You know how:
sin^2(x) = (sin(x))^2
sin^3(x) = (sin(x))^3
sin^-1(x) = arcsin(x)
Well what does sin^-2(x) equal?
Is it (sin(x))^-2 or is it (arcsin(x))^2 ?
			 
			
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				always cosec^2(x). 
			
 
			
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				You won't see that notation on exams, but brightsky is right :)
			
 
			
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				Please help me with this complex numbers question:
w = (4z + 9) / (z - 4) and z = w bar
If z = x + yi, show that (x - 4)^2 + y^2 = 25
			 
			
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				Well, here is a not-so-usual approach, I'm sure the more typical algebra-hack approach will be posted by someone else.

 & = 4z + 9<br />\\ z \bar{z} - 4 \bar{z} - 4 z & = 9<br />\\ z \bar{z} - 4 \bar{z} - 4 z + 16 & = 25<br />\\ (z-4)(\bar{z} - 4) & = 25<br />\\ (z-4) (\overline{z-4}) & = 25<br />\\ |z-4|^2 & = 25<br />\end{align})
So, a circle centred at 
 with a radius of 5. Which is the cartesian equation you have given.
			 
			
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				Thanks Mao :) I have another question:
If you have the equation x = 5, how do you find d(5) / dx ?
Would the answer be 1, since you treat 5 as the function of x and you take the derivative with respect to x, or would it be 0, since there is no change in the value of 5?
			 
			
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Thanks Mao :) I have another question:
If you have the equation x = 5, how do you find d(5) / dx ?
Would the answer be 1, since you treat 5 as the function of x and you take the derivative with respect to x, or would it be 0, since there is no change in the value of 5?
The answer is undefined. X=5 is a vertical line. It's gradient would be +/- inifinity.
			 
			
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Thanks Mao :) I have another question:
If you have the equation x = 5, how do you find d(5) / dx ?
Would the answer be 1, since you treat 5 as the function of x and you take the derivative with respect to x, or would it be 0, since there is no change in the value of 5?
The answer is undefined. X=5 is a vertical line. It's gradient would be +/- inifinity.
Nooooo I'm not asking for the gradient. The gradient would be dy/dx.
I'm asking for d(5) / dx.
If you look at it from an algebraic perspective, you have 5 = x, therefore d(5) / dx = 1. But I'm not sure if it works that way which is what I'm asking.
But thanks for trying anyway.
			 
			
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				You differentiate functions, not equations. (in the context of specialist maths I presume)
			
 
			
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				Hope I'm not hijacking the thread too much but what's the difference between differentiating functions and differentiating equations? 
			
 
			
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Hope I'm not hijacking the thread too much but what's the difference between differentiating functions and differentiating equations?
I wonder this too.
If I had an equation like:
e^y = 4x^2 - 8x and I want to find d(e^y) / dx, the answer would be:
d(e^y) / dx = 8x - 8
I understand that e^y is still a variable, not a constant, but would it be possible to differentiate with respect to a constant when the equation itself is a constant (eg. x = 5)?
			 
			
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Thanks Mao :) I have another question:
If you have the equation x = 5, how do you find d(5) / dx ?
Would the answer be 1, since you treat 5 as the function of x and you take the derivative with respect to x, or would it be 0, since there is no change in the value of 5?
The answer is undefined. X=5 is a vertical line. It's gradient would be +/- inifinity.
Nooooo I'm not asking for the gradient. The gradient would be dy/dx.
I'm asking for d(5) / dx.
If you look at it from an algebraic perspective, you have 5 = x, therefore d(5) / dx = 1. But I'm not sure if it works that way which is what I'm asking.
But thanks for trying anyway.
firstly, x=5 is not a function of x.
secondly, 
 is equivalent to 
 with 
, so your notation is incorrect.
Thirdly, 
 only makes sense if 
 is a function of 
, that is, 
. In this case, 
 cannot be expressed as a function of 
, its differential is undefined.
An alternative approach is if we were to take 
 (a straight line going through (5,0), then take the limit as 
 (i.e. as the line becomes so steep it is totally vertical). The derivative is 
 Alternatively the limit 
 is also a valid interpretation. Since the two limits do not agree (and the fact that they're both infinities), the derivative is undefined.
			 
			
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Hope I'm not hijacking the thread too much but what's the difference between differentiating functions and differentiating equations?
I wonder this too.
If I had an equation like:
e^y = 4x^2 - 8x and I want to find d(e^y) / dx, the answer would be:
d(e^y) / dx = 8x - 8
I understand that e^y is still a variable, not a constant, but would it be possible to differentiate with respect to a constant when the equation itself is a constant (eg. x = 5)?
e^y = 4x^2 - 8x <-- e^y is a function of x.
x = 5 <-- not a function of x. (if this can be written as a function of x, then this implies the constant 5 varies linearly with x, yet the constant 5 doesn't vary with anything, contradiction.)
			 
			
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				Thanks Mao, I think I understand now.
I have another question:
A tank initially contains 200 litres of water. A sugar solution of concentration 30 grams per litre is added to the tank at a rate of 10 litres per minute. The mixture is kept uniform by stirring whilst being immediately drawn out at a rate of 7 litres per minute. If the tank contains x grams of sugar after t minutes, set up (but do not solve) a differential equation for x.
The problem with this question is that the rate of water flowing out is different to the rate of water flowing in. I've never attempted a problem like this before. Please help!
			 
			
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				I think I have the answer, but would someone please confirm it for me?
dV/dt = Input - Output
dV/dt = 10 - 7
dV/dt = 3
V = 3t + C
when t = 0, V = 200
200 = 3(0) + C
C = 200
V = 3t + 200
dx/dt = Input - Output
dx/dt = 10*30 - 7*(x / V)
dx/dt = 300 - 7x / V
dx/dt = 300 - 7x / (3t + 200)
			 
			
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				Yep that looks good :)
			
 
			
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				Ugh this integration problem is really annoying me! It is question 9 from VCAA 2008 specialist mathematics exam 1:
The graph of y = arccos(x), x E [-1, 1] is shown below.
(http://img694.imageshack.us/img694/5910/mathsproblem31.png)
a) Find the area bounded by the graph shown above, the x-axis and the line with equation x = -1.
b) Find the exact volume of the solid of revolution formed if the graph shown above is rotated around the y-axis.
For part a, I guessed that the area would be pi, but that is just a guess and I can't show any working out for it.
For part b, I know this involves comparing it to a y = cos(x) graph, I'm just not sure how, since they look quite different.
			 
			
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				a) you can use the area of rectangle then say it's symmetrical. So you would get pi.
b) isnt there a formula you learn for that? just plug the equation for y in? lol
			 
			
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Ugh this integration problem is really annoying me! It is question 9 from VCAA 2008 specialist mathematics exam 1:
The graph of y = arccos(x), x E [-1, 1] is shown below.
(http://img694.imageshack.us/img694/5910/mathsproblem31.png)
a) Find the area bounded by the graph shown above, the x-axis and the line with equation x = -1.
b) Find the exact volume of the solid of revolution formed if the graph shown above is rotated around the y-axis.
For part a, I guessed that the area would be pi, but that is just a guess and I can't show any working out for it.
For part b, I know this involves comparing it to a y = cos(x) graph, I'm just not sure how, since they look quite different.
a) just intergrate along the y axis if you want to really show it.
Area from x = 0 to x = 1 is given by  dy = 1)
Area from x = -1 to x = 0 is given by 
 
Total area  = \pi)
			 
			
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				Thanks for part a. I think I might have part b. Please tell me if this is right or wrong.
If y = arccos(x) then x = cos(x)
Thus x^2 = cos^2(y)
since cos(2y) = 2cos^2(y) - 1
then cos^2(y) = (1/2)*(cos(2y) + 1)
V = pi*definite integral from y = a to y = b of x^2 dy
V = pi*definite integral from pi to pi/2 of (1/2)*(cos(2y) + 1) dy
V = pi/4 [sin(2y) + 2x] from pi to pi/2
V = pi/4 (0 + 2pi + 1 - pi)
V = pi/4 (pi + 1)
V = (pi^2 + pi) / 4
			 
			
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Thanks for part a. I think I might have part b. Please tell me if this is right or wrong.
If 
 then )
Thus )
since  = 2cos^2(y) - 1)
then  = \frac{1}{2}(cos(2y) + 1))
All the above looks correct, you had the right idea for the integral too. (also latexified it, I find that a bit easier to read :P)
]^2 dy)
So we have x E [-1,1], so our bounds are y E [0, pi] (this can be just seen from the graph given, you made a small error here), written out anyway:
)
 \implies y = 0)
 \implies y = \pi)
 + 1) dy)
 + 1) dy)
 + y\Bigg]^\pi_0)
 - (-2sin(0) + 0)\big))
)
			 
			
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				What is the implied domain of the function y = arccos(sin(3x))?
I thought the answer was (-∞, ∞), but other people keep saying it's [-pi/6, pi/6].
Could someone please explain?
			 
			
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What is the implied domain of the function y = arccos(sin(3x))?
I thought the answer was (-∞, ∞), but other people keep saying it's [-pi/6, pi/6].
Could someone please explain?
I think you're right. 
The domain of arccos(x) is [-1,1]
The range of sin(3x) is [-1,1]
The domain of sin(3x) is R.
So you could input any real number into the function, and still get a number out. 
			 
			
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				Hmm... does an arccos graph have to be a one-one function? Because if it does, then I understand how people got x E [-pi/6, pi/6] as the answer. If not, then I think it is x E (-∞, ∞).
			
 
			
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Hmm... does an arccos graph have to be a one-one function? Because if it does, then I understand how people got x E [-pi/6, pi/6] as the answer. If not, then I think it is x E (-∞, ∞).
The domain of arccos is restricted to [-1,1] because it's a one-to-one function. What we have here is a composite function though, not just arccos by itself. 
			 
			
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What is the implied domain of the function y = arccos(sin(3x))?
I thought the answer was (-∞, ∞), but other people keep saying it's [-pi/6, pi/6].
Could someone please explain?
arccos' domain is restricted from [-1,1]. If that was an x in there instead of sin(3x) we would say that. However, we must now solve the inequality of -1 =< sin(3x) =< 1, because the x from arccos(x) has been replaced with sin(3x).
So:
-1 =< sin(3x) =< 1
arcsin(-1) =< 3x =< arcsin(1)     (arcsin function output limited from -pi/2 to pi/2)
-pi/2 =< 3x =< pi/2
-pi/6 =< x =< pi/6
So the domain of arccos(sin(3x)) is [-pi/6, pi/6].
			 
			
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What is the implied domain of the function y = arccos(sin(3x))?
I thought the answer was (-∞, ∞), but other people keep saying it's [-pi/6, pi/6].
Could someone please explain?
arccos' domain is restricted from [-1,1]. If that was an x in there instead of sin(3x) we would say that. However, we must now solve the inequality of -1 =< sin(3x) =< 1, because the x from arccos(x) has been replaced with sin(3x).
So:
-1 =< sin(3x) =< 1
I got up to this part, and then I deduced that -∞ < x < ∞. Is there anything wrong with that logic?
Also, is this correct:
y = arccos(sin(3x))
since sin(u) = cos(pi/2 - u) then sin(3x) = cos(pi/2 - 3x)
y = arccos(cos(pi/2 - 3x))
y = pi/2 - 3x
			 
			
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				The problem with saying it's neg infinity to positive infinity is because of the restriction on the sin(x) in order to be able to make it have an inverse (hence why arcsin(x) has an restricted range/output of -pi/2 to pi/2 as a function itself). So arcsin(1) is only ever pi/2, because of that specific restriction :). 
And as for the function F = pi/2 - 3x, it is equal to arccos(sin(3x)) only in it's defined domain of -pi/6 to pi/6. Good job on that one btw
			 
			
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				I'm sorry to be stubborn, but I still don't have my head completely around this. 
I can see for something like 
 we have to restrict the domain since the inequality 
 will not be true for all x. If you tried to substitute in 
, then you'd end up with 
 which we know is outside the restricted domain of arccos(x).
However with this example of 
, and the inequality 
 we can let x be any real number, and we'll have a number that satisfies the inequality. 
Let's say we have 
So 
 and therefore 
 which we know to be inside the domain of arccos(x). 
			 
			
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I'm sorry to be stubborn, but I still don't have my head completely around this. 
I can see for something like 
 we have to restrict the domain since the inequality 
 will not be true for all x. If you tried to substitute in 
, then you'd end up with 
 which we know is outside the restricted domain of arccos(x).
However with this example of 
, and the inequality 
 we can let x be any real number, and we'll have a number that satisfies the inequality. 
Let's say we have 
I see what you mean, however the I believe that the inequality of 
 is just a stepping stone to the "actual" inequality of 
 , from which the restriction of the arcsin function limits the domain of the arccos(sin(3x)). 
			 
			
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				i'm pretty sure the domain is R. you can sub in any x and the function f(x)= arccos(sin(3x)) will spit out a value. 
@Hancock - how would you solve sin(3x) = 1? 3x = arcsin(3x) is only one solution. the inequality -1 =< sin(...) =< 1 always holds provided sin(...) has a large enough domain, which in this case it has. 
			 
			
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i'm pretty sure the domain is R. you can sub in any x and the function f(x)= arccos(sin(3x)) will spit out a value. 
@Hancock - how would you solve sin(3x) = 1? 3x = arcsin(3x) is only one solution. the inequality -1 =< sin(...) =< 1 always holds provided sin(...) has a large enough domain, which in this case it has.
I think if we solve sin(3x)=1 => 3x+2npi=arcsin(1) (n is integers)
                                                  3x= pi/2-2npi
                                                    x=pi/6-2npi/3
Thus the implied domain is R.
If we put in CAS the function arccos(sin3x), the function is defined with all values of x
-1 =< sin(3x) =< 1
arcsin(-1) =< 3x =< arcsin(1)     (arcsin function output limited from -pi/2 to pi/2)
-pi/2 =< 3x =< pi/2
-pi/6 =< x =< pi/6
So the domain of arccos(sin(3x)) is [-pi/6, pi/6].
If you say the range of arcsin function is -pi/2 to pi/2 so
arcsin(-1)=< 3x+2npi=<arcsin(1)
-pi/2-2npi=< 3x=<pi/2-2npi
-pi/6-2npi/3=<x=<pi/6-2npi/3
Therefore, the implied domain is R
			 
			
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				I'm actually not too sure what to think now. Granted that -1 =< sin(3x) =< 1 due to the obvious state of the trig function. Maybe you're right. 
			
 
			
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				Let's start with a much simpler problem of the same form:
What is the domain of y = arcsin(sin(x)) ?
If I assume that y = x, then I end up with a straight line, rather than a zig-zag line. The line y = x is the same as y = arcsin(sin(x)) only in the domain [-pi/2, pi/2]. Everything outside that domain zig-zags up and down, whereas the y = x just continues in a straight line.
			 
			
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				I'm pretty much convinced now that the maximal domain would be R. 
From what I see, it seems all you're doing there is solving for 
 there, you're not looking at 
 solely.
The implied domain is "the set of all real numbers for which the expression is defined.", and we can see that the function is defined outside of [-pi/2,pi/2]
If you're solving the inequality 
 don't forget to account for other periods with the general solution (like Jenny did in her post earlier).
With the not ignoring the other periods thing, it's also comes up with what you did with 
, it's also equivalent every now and then to 
 ?
Edit: You can look at an alternate problem, of a different form where the maximal domain would not be R, e.g. 
, or 
			 
			
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				I think Laseredd is right.
Considering the trig function, the maximal domain of arcsin(sinx) is still R because its defined with all values of x
But arcsin(sinx) is only equal x when x E [-pi/2,pi/2]
Outside this domain, arcsin(sinx) is still defined but not equal to x.
Does it make sense, Special at Specialist?
			 
			
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				Yes, all of that makes sense, thank you. I thought that the answer was something like that. Now I have a different problem:
Are these steps mathematically valid (ie. would they score full marks if written on a VCAA exam):
dy/dx = 2x
∫dy = ∫2x dx
y = x^2 + C
As opposed to:
dy/dx = 2x
y = ∫2x dx
y = x^2 + C
Basically, is it correct to split it up into 2 different integrals, or do I have to go from dy/dx = ... to y = ... dx?
			 
			
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				^ The first one doesn't make sense to me (but I'm not comfortable with differentials). I think the second one's okay. 
But a question like that would be one mark, so do you really have to show the steps?
			 
			
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				Well that was just an example. The real question was more complicated than that and it was worth 3 marks. I know that VCAA are quite pedantic markers so I'd like to make sure that I get every line of working out correct to ensure that I get 100% on the exam (since most of the marks I lose are from petty things like this or not crossing out false solutions).
			
 
			
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				It's an indefinite integral I do this:




If it's a definite integral I do this:
 with 
 when 



			 
			
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				So then I was correct in saying ∫dy = ∫2x dx ? I wouldn't lose any marks for that, would I?
			
 
			
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So then I was correct in saying ∫dy = ∫2x dx ? I wouldn't lose any marks for that, would I?
Nope
			 
			
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So then I was correct in saying ∫dy = ∫2x dx ? I wouldn't lose any marks for that, would I?
Nope
Do we have to write step by step like this in exam? :O
Its just tedious and time-consuming
			 
			
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				Yeah you can probably omit that step in an exam. VCAA's not that pedantic about being mathematically correct.
			
 
			
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				Yeah, I've never seen that step done in any calculus text before
			 
			
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				I don't think the step is necessary, but if I were to add it, then I wouldn't lose any marks for it.
			
 
			
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I don't think the step is necessary, but if I were to add it, then I wouldn't lose any marks for it.
why do you have to add it if its not neccessary?
Btw, I dont see people solve by writing as  ∫dy = ∫2x dx though
			 
			
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				I liked writing as many steps as I could, just to avoid confusion by skipping steps.
His step mentioned ∫dy = ∫2x dx is a perfectly valid one and I've seen it written by few in my school.
			 
			
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				Doesn't that
 mean you're then integrating dy? Shouldn't you be treating dy/dx as a function and not be treating it as a fraction?
			 
			
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Doesn't that
 mean you're then integrating dy? Shouldn't you be treating dy/dx as a function and not be treating it as a fraction?
dy/dx obeys fraction laws. Perfectly legit.
			 
			
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				hmmm...just seems a bit like abuse of notation to me lol
			
 
			
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hmmm...just seems a bit like abuse of notation to me lol
Technically it kind of is if you are a stickler to proper notation and nothing less than that, but it's pretty well accepted by VCAA and by most mathematicians in general.
			 
			
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hmmm...just seems a bit like abuse of notation to me lol
dy/dx is treated as a normal fraction. That's how the chain rule works.
Note: d^2y/dx^2  (or any type of differential that's higher than the first derivative cannot be treated as a fraction). 
			 
			
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				I wrote on the last page:


That's where the ∫dy comes from, so it's a valid step to write ∫dy = ∫f(x)dx after dy/dx = f(x), it just skips the derivation of it in the first line (above). So I guess if you write the second line you might as well write the first line. But yes, ∫dy is valid.
			 
			
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hmmm...just seems a bit like abuse of notation to me lol
You're right:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abuse_of_notation#Derivative
			 
			
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I wrote on the last page:


That's where the ∫dy comes from, so it's a valid step to write ∫dy = ∫f(x)dx after dy/dx = f(x), it just skips the derivation of it in the first line (above). So I guess if you write the second line you might as well write the first line. But yes, ∫dy is valid.
Yeah but I just can't get my head around what the the integral of nothing with respect to dy means cause it's like you killed the derivative function when you cancelled the dxs...but as I said, I'm not comfortable with differentials and if the examiners accept...well then that's fine :p
			 
			
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				if you write 
dy/dx = f(u) x g(x)
is that "notationally correct"?
			 
			
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I wrote on the last page:


That's where the ∫dy comes from, so it's a valid step to write ∫dy = ∫f(x)dx after dy/dx = f(x), it just skips the derivation of it in the first line (above). So I guess if you write the second line you might as well write the first line. But yes, ∫dy is valid.
Yeah but I just can't get my head around what the the integral of nothing with respect to dy means cause it's like you killed the derivative function when you cancelled the dxs...but as I said, I'm not comfortable with differentials and if the examiners accept...well then that's fine :p
I think of it as integrating the number 1 with respect to y, which is why you get y as the result. 
			 
			
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				^ haha I'm an idiot for not seeing that
			
 
			
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if you write 
dy/dx = f(u) x g(x)
is that "notationally correct"?
Yes, if you define everything else properly when doing the question (I assume you had y = F(G(x)) and u = G(x) )
			 
			
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				no i didn't, mean expressing dy/dx in terms of u and x 
(as an intermediate step before subbing back in u=)
			 
			
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				Eh not sure what you mean, write something out?
			
 
			
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if you write 
dy/dx = f(u) x g(x)
is that "notationally correct"?
Do you mean: 

And your question is: can you write as
			 
			
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				nah
an example is
let y = xloge(cosx)) 
and then you go let u = cos x then du/dx = -sinx
then y =xloge(u)
then
dy/dx = loge(u) x x(-sinx)/cos(x)
cos you have dy/dx in terms of both u and x
			 
			
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				That looks dodgy to me
			
 
			
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nah
an example is
let y = xloge(cosx)) 
and then you go let u = cos x then du/dx = -sinx
then y =xloge(u)
then
dy/dx = loge(u) x x(-sinx)/cos(x)
cos you have dy/dx in terms of both u and x
pi is right - this is dodgy. Look at what you've done - from this step:
y =xloge(u)
to this step
dy/dx = loge(u) x x(-sinx)/cos(x)
you didn't use the product rule, what you should have done is:
dy/dx = d/dx(x) * loge(u) + x * d/dx(loge(u))
then you would have to use the chain rule in order to find the derivative of wrt to x of loge(u)
which would give you:
d/dx(loge(u)) = d/du(loge(u)) * d/dx(u)
...etc.
All in all - what you did is dodgy and not correct.
Moderator action: removed real name, sorry for the inconvenience
			 
			
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				Sorry, i did it quicky in my head, it's not about doing that actual question,
It's whether daying dy/dx = f (u ) + g(x) is notationally correct
Like is saying dy/dx = ln (u) - xsin(x)/cos(x)
A valid ( notationally) intermediate step to 
The final solution?
Dy/dx = ln(cox(x))-xtanx?
Like for integrals you can't go S 2x du 
For example
But when you're deriving was my intermediate step (notationally) correct or incorrect?
Thanks
			 
			
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				I don't think that's valid, just write the other intermediate step imo
			
 
			
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I don't think that's valid, just write the other intermediate step imo
Is the intermediate step compulsory?
I always do the shortcut but if I still get the right answer, do I lose marks for skipping steps?
			 
			
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				It doesn't really make sense without the intermediate step, and writing it will cost you like 5 seconds at most. Not a huge loss imo.
			
 
			
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				I don't understand why these questions are asked - to be honest, just do it properly and write everything out - like pi says, it'd take 5 seconds of your time and you'd be making yourself a lot clearer. Also with regards to writing derivatives in two variables - I wouldn't do it - it's not in the scope of VCE mathematics and, like many things that aren't, it can cause confusion. 
Moderator action: removed real name, sorry for the inconvenience
			 
			
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I don't understand why these questions are asked 
Whats wrong with asking questions? 
			 
			
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				It's questions where the answers should be fairly obvious tbh :P The general rule is to solving a question is to use the most elegant method and show the steps that will allow an examiner to easily and clearly see your flow of logic. The goal isn't to cut corners by making obvious dodgy steps (ie. those that aren't in textbooks or in practice exams).
			
 
			
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It's questions where the answers should be fairly obvious tbh :P The general rule is to solving a question is to use the most elegant method and show the steps that will allow an examiner to easily and clearly see your flow of logic. The goal isn't to cut corners by making obvious dodgy steps (ie. those that aren't in textbooks or in practice exams).
I did the shortcut in SACs and it was fine, the teacher didnt take any marks off though
Thats why I ask whether I can do like this in exams
Anyway, I apologise for my silly question
			 
			
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				Like my view is that if you use the argument "but my teacher didn't take off any marks" - then you don't really have an argument when you end up with something like 1.5/2 for an exam question because you took a shortcut. This is because different examiners will have different standards to which they want you to present your work. If you do something that is questionable, sure, there are times where you'll get away with it and there are times where you won't. I just don't understand why you would want to take that risk when doing it properly won't take you any longer. My advice is to be elegant, but don't be rough or vague. 
Whats wrong with asking questions? 
There's nothing wrong with asking questions, but, like pi, I think the answer is fairly obvious, you want to present your answers as best you can and there are plenty of resources out there including exams and textbooks which will show you how to present an answer. 
Moderator action: removed real name, sorry for the inconvenience
			 
			
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				It's important for someone else to be able to follow your working, even outside VCE. Even if you don't go on with maths it's pretty much inevitable that you'll have to do some quantitative problem-solving later on, so it's good to practice being clear.
			
 
			
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It's important for someone else to be able to follow your working, even outside VCE. Even if you don't go on with maths it's pretty much inevitable that you'll have to do some quantitative problem-solving later on, so it's good to practice being clear.
Good advice, and he's right, it's not just to do with Maths but in everything you do, from writing CVs to writing essays and delivering presentations, clarity is key!
			 
			
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It's important for someone else to be able to follow your working, even outside VCE. Even if you don't go on with maths it's pretty much inevitable that you'll have to do some quantitative problem-solving later on, so it's good to practice being clear.
I was hoping that if I spend less time for easy questions or skip long steps, I can have more time for difficult ones
But yeah, you are correct. Not about Maths but other things as well, I should do carefully
			 
			
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				It really shouldn't take that long to write out a few extra lines. Even if it does, practice writing out lots of working when doing questions, then you'll be able to do it faster.
			
 
			
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				dy/dx = d/dx(x) * loge(u) + x * d/dx(loge(u))
is this the intermediate step?
wb for methods, what should you do there (can you use pseudo implicit diff?)
			 
			
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				It's not a matter of being too lazy to write the working out, it's knowing what to write. Often I know exactly how to solve a problem, I just don't know how to show the working out and I end up losing marks on such an easy question that it frustrates me.
For example, one question asked me to resolve a vector into two components: one which was parallel to another vector and one which was perpendicular to it. I know that I have to use the vector resolute to find the parallel component and then subtract that from the first vector to find the perpendicular component, but I'm not sure how to show the working out, especially the final answer. Do I just write "parallel component = ... and perpendicular component = ..." ? Or is there another way of writing the answer?
			 
			
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It's not a matter of being too lazy to write the working out, it's knowing what to write. Often I know exactly how to solve a problem, I just don't know how to show the working out and I end up losing marks on such an easy question that it frustrates me.
For example, one question asked me to resolve a vector into two components: one which was parallel to another vector and one which was perpendicular to it. I know that I have to use the vector resolute to find the parallel component and then subtract that from the first vector to find the perpendicular component, but I'm not sure how to show the working out, especially the final answer. Do I just write "parallel component = ... and perpendicular component = ..." ? Or is there another way of writing the answer?
My advice is to be clear and logical, as long as you are clear and logical, you should be OK.