ATAR Notes: Forum
VCE Stuff => VCE Mathematics/Science/Technology => VCE Subjects + Help => VCE Mathematics => Topic started by: luken93 on February 24, 2011, 07:06:46 pm
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Hey guys, I thought I may as well make my own thread, but I'll have both Spesh + Methods in the one thread to save the clutter...
Anyways, first question:
The simultaneous linear equations
(1)... x + 3y = 6)
(2)... y = m - 1)
Have No Solution for.....
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Use matrices
For no solution det=0
(m-2)(m-3)-2*3=0
Simplify to get m= 0 and m = 5
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That's what I got, however the answers are:
A. R \ {0,5}
B. R \ {0}
C. R\ {6}
D. m = 5
E. m = 0
I would've said A, but apparently not!
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you mean the anwer is m=0?
I just tried again using CAS for m=5, x=2-y
for m=0, yes there is no solutions
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You get no solutions when both lines have different equations but the same gradient. So sub in the value for m that fits that description and you should get the answer, which is m=0 in this case.
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sajib, your method is quicker
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Helps when you've finished VCE :P
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You get no solutions when both lines have different equations but the same gradient. So sub in the value for m that fits that description and you should get the answer, which is m=0 in this case.
So what was your actual method there? I rearranged them to make a linear y = equation, and then let both the gradients equal eachother which gave m = 0 and 5?
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Now that you've found the values of m, you have to verify which one gives no solutions. If you sub in
into both equations, you get:


By rearranging the equations to make y the subject, you can see that both equations have the same gradients but different equations, so they are parrallel lines. Hence they give no solution. However, if we sub in
, you get these two equations:


When simplified, these two equations are essentially indicate the same line, hence there is infinite no. of solutions. Therefore
is your only answer.
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Aaahh, thanks for that
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Aaahh, thanks for that
Whenever you get these type of questions where you have to determine unique, infinite, no solutions etc, the important thing is to always verify your answers or its very easy to make a mistake. Unless you only get the one answer of course.
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SPESH Q
Looking for a nice solution to this, as any of mine get very messy :P
Let
and 
Express in modulus - Argument form:
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Modulus is trivial.
For argument, the complex number is in the 4th quadrant.
So tan(x) = (1/cos(t))/(1/sin(t)) = sin(t)/cos(t) = tan(t), pi/2 < t < pi
x = arctan(tan(t)) = t, pi/2 < t < pi
But since x is in the 4th quadrant, then we have 0 < x < -pi/2.
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Thanks, I ended up getting it anyway. Essentials has a tendency to keep changing r cis (x) to -r cis (x - pi), but once you get used to it it's not so bad...
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Is modulus-argument form just polar form? O_O
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Is modulus-argument form just polar form? O_O
Yeah, |z|cis(Arg)
Have a go if you want, the answer is retarded.
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Modulus is trivial.
For argument, the complex number is in the 4th quadrant.
So tan(x) = (1/cos(t))/(1/sin(t)) = sin(t)/cos(t) = tan(t), pi/2 < t < pi
x = arctan(tan(t)) = t, pi/2 < t < pi
But since x is in the 4th quadrant, then we have 0 < x < -pi/2.
is 0 < neg?
is the answer -2cosec(2x) cis(x-pi)?
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Close, everything is correct except cosec. Think about double angle angle formulas
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i left out the 2
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The answer works out to be:
}cis(\theta - \pi))
} + \frac{1}{cos^2(\theta)})
 + cos^2(\theta)}{sin^2(\theta)cos^2(\theta)})
cos^2(\theta)})
cos(\theta)})
})
})
------
}cis(\theta))
}cis(\theta - \pi))
That was my working to get to the answer above (apparently the correct answer), is yours any quicker/simpler?
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The answer works out to be:
}cis(\theta - \pi))
} + \frac{1}{cos^2(\theta)})
 + cos^2(\theta)}{sin^2(\theta)cos^2(\theta)})
cos^2(\theta)})
cos(\theta)})
})
})
------
}cis(\theta))
}cis(\theta - \pi))
That was my working to get to the answer above (apparently the correct answer), is yours any quicker/simpler?
is wrong because
is a negative value.
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So how'd you get to the (theta - pi) then? I understand what you mean, but that was the only way I could get to it...
Also, if you start with addressing the domain first, then wouldn't you change the 1/sin, because the Re(z) is -ve in the 2nd quadrant. Even though, it'd get cancelled out when squaring it.
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} + \frac{1}{\cos(\theta)} i )
}{\sin(\theta)\cos(\theta)} )
}{\frac{1}{2}\sin(2\theta)} )
 cis(\theta) )
But since
, then  < 0 )
So
so
needs a negative in front of it, which means:
 \cdot -cis(\theta) = -2\csc(2\theta) cis(\theta - \pi) )
So
and
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So how'd you get to the (theta - pi) then? I understand what you mean, but that was the only way I could get to it...
Also, if you start with addressing the domain first, then wouldn't you change the 1/sin, because the Re(z) is -ve in the 2nd quadrant. Even though, it'd get cancelled out when squaring it.
you have confused arg of z with
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} + \frac{1}{\cos(\theta)} i )
}{\sin(\theta)\cos(\theta)} )
}{\frac{1}{2}\sin(2\theta)} )
 cis(\theta) )
But since
, then  < 0 )
So
so
needs a negative in front of it, which means:
 \cdot -cis(\theta) = -2\csc(2\theta) cis(\theta - \pi) )
So
and  = \theta - \pi )
Ok, that's making more sense, but I feel I'm missing something fundamental here...
For the step I bolded above, I understand that cosec(x) is negative for pi/2 -> pi, but why do you NEED to put a negative in front of the cis because of it? Am I thinking right that the negative will make the point be in the forth quadrant rather than the second, hence putting a negative cis will return it back to the 2nd quadrant? I only made this assumption through working through some problems, I haven't actually seen a written form that explains how/why this happens?
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The cis(t) 'needs' a negative in front of it because csc(t) is negative in the given domain. But the modulus has to be positive and so only -2csc(2t) would turn it positive. But z = 2csc(2t)cis(t), so we need to put a "negative sign" in front of the cis, just so that the negatives cancel out.
So z = -2csc(2t) * -cis(t) = 2csc(2t)cis(t)
Using this method, you don't need to worry about quadrants. It's all methodical.
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Okay, another question (Spesh)
So we had our SAC the other day, and this is still bugging me. It was an Analysis SAC on electrical circuits, and we were given the voltage to be:
V(t) = 4sin(wt)
and the Current given was along the lines of:
I(t) = 3.5sin(wt - pi)
From there, we were given that Power = Voltage x Current
Finally, it was a show that question which asked us to find the power using the 2 functions above. However, I feel that I musty have read it wrong, as the "show that" equalled something along the lines of;
P(t) = 7sin(2wt - pi) - 7
Now please, someone give me the satisfaction that I've read it incorrectly, because as far as I know you can't multiply the two together as is, but furthermore a vertical translation?
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You can use the product-to-sum identity
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yeah, but how the hell would you get a vertical translation?
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apply that formula. One of the terms becomes a constant term.
Or even better, notice that sin(wt-pi)=-sin(wt), so P=-14sin2(wt), use double angle formula of cos to get it to the required form.
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Yeah it turned out to be assessing double angle formulas, was fairly easy after that. Thanks anyway Mao!
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Is there any "quick" way of doing this question? It's not that hard, but my teacher is sure that there is an easier way haha

My method was as follows:
}{e^x +1}dx-\int_0^1\frac{e^x + 1}{e^x +1}}dx + \int_0^1\frac{1}{e^x + 1}})
OR
}{e^x +1}}dx - \int_0^1\frac{1}{e^x +1}}dx)
But both seem very tiresome methods :P
Any ideas?
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Sorry if this is hard to follow.
Let u = e^x
du/dx = e^x
Integrand becomes u/(u+1) as you divide du/dx in substitution to get e^x in the numerator which becomes u and the denominator becomes u+1 from direct substitution of u. Integrate u/(u+1) which is u–ln|u+1| which is e^x – ln |e^x+1|.
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Let u = e^x+1
du/dx = e^x
int[2,e+1] (u+1)/u du = int[2,e+1] (1+1/u) du = [u+lnu] 2,e+1 = e+1+ln(e+1) - 2-ln2 =e-1+ln((e+1)/2)
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Hey again guys;
I was doing the 2010 VCAA Methods Exam, and another one of these "Find the minimum number of days/hours needed to get the Pr(X) > 0.9"
I understand the theory, that's not the problem. My problem is, how do you do it on the calc?
If I know that Pr(X = 0) + Pr(X = 1) <0.1, and the Pr(Success) = 0.2, how do I use solve on the calc for binomial distribution?
I did solve(0.8^n + nCr(n,1) x (0.2) x (0.8)^(n-1) < 0.1, n) on my Ti89, however this doesn't yield anything.
Also tried solve(BinomCdf(n, 0.2, 0, 1) < 0.1, n) but this doesn't give anything either.
Am I inputting it in the right way? I haven't been taught this in class, hence my question.
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Your problem is that the solve function requires everything to be a floating point number. The solve function would be substituting n=1.578290394 and crazy shit like that into your equation, which would choke because it requires n to be an integer. (nCr is only defined for integer values of n).
Try entering that expression into the y-editor, and check out the 'table' functionality (around F5 iirc). This generates a list of values for various n, which you can manually check to find when it first drops below 0.1.
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In a lift that is accelerating downwards at 1 m/s^2, a spring balance shows the apparent
weight of the body to be 2.5 kg wt. What would be the reading if the lift was:
a) at rest?
b) accelerating upwards at 2 m/s^2?
I kinda managed to get a), but I'm lost as to what to use for b)...
If someone would be as kind to do a diagram as well that'd be great, my physics is pretty rusty haha
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so for a i got the mass to be 2.78 kg and the normal force if at rest to be 2.78 kg wt or 27.28 N.
Now in part b, in the attached pic, by adding the forces and equating to the net force, we get N-mg=ma=2m, so N=m(g+2) = 32.804N = 3.35 kg wt. This is what the scale would read.
also i don't know why the question is using kg wt, ive never seen it in VCAA exams, the SI unit is newtons and you should probably stick with that.
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Aha so you do use the answer from part a), that makes more sense.
As for the units, this is from essentials so who knows, but the majority are in this kg wt form...
And just to check, mass is always going to be constant, it's just the acceleration that changes the apparent weight, where weight = mg yes?
And kg wt * 9.8 = N?
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have you seen the net force formulae f=ma? If you convert this formulae to units it gives N = ms^-2 * kg wt, since 9.8 is acceleration due to gravity, kg wt * 9.8 = N
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have you seen the net force formulae f=ma? If you convert this formulae to units it gives N = ms^-2 * kg wt, since 9.8 is acceleration due to gravity, kg wt * 9.8 = N
Haha yeah I know F=ma, just checking I was doing everything right :P
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Is modulus-argument form just polar form? O_O
Yes it is:
r.cis(theta) is polar form, where r is the modulus and theta is the argument, hence, modulus-argument form
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Can someone explain this question to me? I thought I had it covered, but I asked my physics/spesh teacher and he got the wrong answer...
Cheers
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Is the answer D?
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ok so obviously we have gravity on the larger mass, Mg acting down. we also have the force due to gravity from the upper mass acting down, which is mg.
There is a reaction force from the bottom block acting on the upper block(R1), so by newtons 3rd law a force of the same magnitude acts on the lower block going down, also R1
Finally we have the reaction force from the ground acting on the lower block acting upwards, which is R2.
Therefore diagram C is correct with R1, mg, Mg acting down and R2 acting upwards.
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Ok this is seriously stupid.
I, my teacher, and moekamo said C. Incorrect.
Checkpoints said E. Incorrect.
tony, you are correct. Please explain!
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Just by looking at the answer being D. wouldn't it be that the forces acting down is the weight of both the masses, but the reaction of the smaller mass is equal to the weight of the smaller mass, hence the forces acting down is R1+Mg. Then forces actign upwards is just the reaction of the larger mass?
Does that make any sense?
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The question says that the upwards force acting on the smaller block is R1. Therefore by Newton's third law this is also acting downward on the larger block. But as the only downwards force acting on the blocks is gravity, it must be concluded that the downwards force of the smaller block due to gravity, mg, is the equal and opposite of R1. So essentially including this force as the downwards arrow actually overstates the downwards force acting on the larger block.
That's basically how i saw it, it that makes any sense.
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Yep righteo, so since the smaller block has an Fnet = 0, the mg force is equal to the R1 force?
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Yeah pretty much.