WDF? you guys actually learn some number theory in general maths?
SICK AS!
part b) of the question is one of the most famous theorems, called the fundamental theorem of arithmetic (
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_theorem_of_arithmetic), not only is it a good applicable theorem, but the proof is also very cool!
Here's a cool proof I did ages ago from when I started number theory.
Assume that there are numbers which can not be expressed as a product of primes. Let the smallest possible number of this kind be

.

can not be

since

is neither composite nor prime.

can not be prime since the PPF of a prime number is just itself. Thus

must be a composite number.
Let the composition of

where

Since

was the smallest number that can not be expressed as a product of primes, this means

and

can be expressed as a product of primes and consequently we get

where

and

can be both expressed as primes. Contradiction!
Thus

can also be expressed as a product of primes.
Lemma 1: If

is a prime and

then

for some

.
Lemma 2: If

and

are primes and

is a natural number and

then

.
Let's assume that for some number

that there are

(at least) ways of expressing its PPF.

Clearly for all

,


By
Lemma 1 
for any

.
By
Lemma 2 
This means that for all

and all

there are values of

which equals to those of

. For example,

could equal to

, or

etc. This also means we have created a bijection between

and

such that

.
Therefore if the number

has

PPF's then the prime number 'base' will be exactly the same, the only different would be in the powers, namely

and

.
Now since each

has a corespondent equivalent

we can rewrite

as:



however

can not be divided by

unless for some

such that

But since

we have a contradiction!
part c) of the question is a corollary of the fundamental theorem of arithmetic (
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Least_common_multiple#Reduction_by_the_greatest_common_divisor)