Yeah, but it isn't a sequence, we're not looking at what happens to e^x/(e^x+x^2) as x becomes large and even if we were, it isn't enough to just say that it converges to 1, you would need to prove it.
The integral doesn't actually exist as far as I can tell, and the only way I can think of being able to prove it is by using the comparison test
If you have a function which doesn't tend to zero over the real numbers, integrating it over the real numbers is bound to diverge. Name me one instance where this doesn't hold.
For example, if you really wanted to, you could show that for some

, you could always find x such that

which is a consequence of the limit
so then you could use a comparison test to show that the integral diverges
But is the last step strictly necessary? One necessary condition for an improper integral of the kind given to converge IS for the function to approach zero as x becomes large.