ok that makes a bit of sense now.
why did you have to square the 2 in the denominator?
A few ways to think about this.
First way:
1. Dilate by a factor of 1/2 from the y-axis. Replace x with x/(1/2) = 2x. y = 1/x^2 becomes y = 1/(2x)^2 = 1/(4x^2).
2. Dilate by a factor of 4 from the x-axis. Replace y with y/4. y = 1/(4x^2) becomes y/4 = 1/(4x^2), which is equivalent to y = 1/x^2.
Second way:
[x';y'] = [1/2,0;0,4] [x;y]
[x';y'] = [1/2x;4y]
x' = 1/2x, which implies x = 2x'
y' = 4y, which implies y = y'/4
Substituting these into the original equation yields:
y'/4 = 1/(2x')^2
y' = 1/x'^2
Guys, why is it that any
is equal to 0?
Is it because
is equal to
,
hence
= 0?? or did i just make that stupid theory up
Your reasoning is perfectly legit. Another way to think of it is this. Can you think of a number such that e to the power of that number is 1? Of course, the only number, such that e to the power of that number is 1, is 0. I find that this is the best way to think of logarithms. Below are a few other examples.
i) What is the value of log_2(4)? Ask: can I think of a number such that 2 to the power of that number is 4? Of course, the answer is 2, so log_2(4) = 2.
ii) What is the value of log_10(1000)? Ask: can I think of a number such that 10 to the power of that number is 1000? Of course, the answer is 3, so log_10(1000) = 3.