so that 'greater of equal' theory doesn't exist or something? hahahah. silly me.
One must be really careful how they define things. E.g. what exactly does it mean for a set to be "larger" (or likewise, "smaller") than another set? Take an interval as an example, you may be inclined to believe that if the "length" of some real interval is greater than the length of another interval, then the former is "larger", but does this definition really work for all kinds of sets? To illustrate, consider the Cantor set which is formed by taking the closed interval

and then removing the middle

, denote

and
)
, continue this inductively and define

, now let's see what the "length" of this set is. Since

, and to construct

we remove

middle thirds of length

, the length of

is
 = 1 - \frac{1/3}{1-2/3} = 1-1 = 0)
. So the Cantor set has
zero length. But wait, does this mean it contains no elements? Thinking about this further, note that each endpoint is never removed, so

contains at least the endpoints of each iteration. We have seemingly an impossible situation, how can a set have zero "length" yet still be non-empty? The reason is because our initial definition precludes us from seeing the larger picture.
Indeed, Cantor's discoveries lead to the notion of cardinality and cardinal numbers, I won't delve into it but you can have a read here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cardinality and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cardinal_number.
Using the idea of countability, it can be shown that the Cantor set is a collection of points. Intuitively, we would think a collection of points is a "small" set right? Well it turns out, the Cantor set is "larger" than the entire set of natural and rational numbers, in fact it is uncountable, meaning there is no way we can list the elements in the Cantor set such that we can form a bijection with

or

. Thus, what seemingly appeared to be very "small" is infact so large that it's "infinitely large".