How would you prove the limit as x approaches 0 for sin (1/x) is undefined (without your hybrid function)?
My hybrid function example has nothing to do with whether
)
is undefined or defined as

, it was to illustrate a fallacy in your approach.
If at x = 0, g(x) = 0, there is no limit to evaluate.
Yes there is.
Limit as x approaches 0 of '0' = 0. By the limit law, limit as x approaches 'b' of 'c' = 'c'. Do you know how to derive this?
Yes I do, but this has nothing to do with my example.
Perhaps an even simpler example to illustrate why your approach is incorrect is as follows. Define:
 = \begin{cases} x+3 \text{ if } x \neq 0 \\ 0 \text{ if } x = 0 \end{cases})
Again I ask, what is
)
? Using your approach:
1) g(x) is not a product function.
2) g(x) is defined at x=0.
Hence
 = g(0) = 0)
.
Also the above example illustrates why this statement is false.
If at x = 0, g(x) = 0, there is no limit to evaluate.
Clearly
 =0)
at

, but there is an limit to evaluate, i.e.,
)
, whether it exists or not is not of the concern.