When finding the values for x in which f(x) is strictly/decreasing, why do we have to include the turning point (according to insight exam 2014 solutions)? Isn't the gradient 0 there, so not decreasing or increasing?
Favourite video eva.The thing is, strictly increasing/decreasing is NOT defined in terms of the gradient, like you'd expect. Rather, if a<b implies f(a)<f(b) over some interval C, we say that f is
strictly increasing over the interval C. Compare to if f is just
increasing over C, where a<b implies f(a)<=f(b). This is why the turning point is still included - no matter what a/b you pick, the turning point will always still be above/below it (depending on if the function is increasing or decreasing), and so we include it. However, if you move after the turning point, you can pick a point on that interval that breaks the f(a)<f(b) inequality (in particular, the turning point), hence why we wouldn't choose after the turning point, only up to it. This is a little hard to explain in just words, so feel free to show us the question, and we can use actual points on the graph to help explain it.
It's very easy to see why students (like yourself) get confused, because you're often taught this immediately after you learn about the gradient. However, strictly increasing/decreasing is not defined in terms of gradients (if you continue to do maths at university and do some Real Analysis, you'll learn that strictly increasing/decreasing graphs have some nice properties, hence why we use this definition as opposed to f'(x)>0 or f'(x)<0. For now, you get this nice "black box" explanation)