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August 20, 2025, 09:33:21 pm

Author Topic: VCE Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!  (Read 2577668 times)  Share 

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ahat

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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2295 on: September 28, 2013, 10:33:12 pm »
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Could someone please post a solution for question 4, VCAA 2007 (Spec) Exam 2?

I'm having trouble understanding part c and d.
Thanks muchly.
I am a mathhole

Professor Polonsky

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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2296 on: September 28, 2013, 10:57:32 pm »
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2006 vcaa MCQ 20 - why am I getting B?

ahat

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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2297 on: September 28, 2013, 11:20:23 pm »
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If you're using Lami's Theorem, remember that the angle is opposite the force. This could be the problem.
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zvezda

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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2298 on: October 01, 2013, 02:03:58 pm »
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Hey,
With q9 on the 2007 exam 1, the assessors report says that there is a more rigorous way to answer the question than simply assuming that x=cos(t) and y=sin(t), but doesnt explain this method.
I assumed the same thing when doing the q initially and knew that it was wrong to do so, but couldnt think of another way (although i didnt explicitly state this).
So what is this apparent method?
Cheers
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BasicAcid

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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2299 on: October 01, 2013, 04:28:08 pm »
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How do we antidifferentiate 4/(x^2 + 4x)?

Alwin

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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2300 on: October 01, 2013, 04:36:04 pm »
+2
How do we antidifferentiate 4/(x^2 + 4x)?

Hint: partial fractions, A/x and B/(x+4)

From a neap exam 1 iirc? :P
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revcose

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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2301 on: October 01, 2013, 04:36:54 pm »
+4
That's a really nice question stankovic. I don't think I could do it, but the assessment report does kind of explain it.

r = x i + y j
v = dx/dt i + dy/dt j (Through standard vector diff)
v = -y i + x j (As it told us)
Therefore dx/dt = -y and dy/dt = x (or we can look at this as - dy/dt = -x)
Using those, we can take v to a
v = -y i + x j
a = -x i - y j
And a = -r
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BasicAcid

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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2302 on: October 01, 2013, 04:38:53 pm »
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Hint: partial fractions, A/x and B/(x+4)

From a neap exam 1 iirc? :P

Nope, hefferman exam 1 I believe, I just did one under exam conditions at school.

And fuck, I should've known how to do that -_-



Btw cheers alwin I appreciate you not just spitting the answer out and just giving me the hint :)
« Last Edit: October 01, 2013, 04:41:04 pm by BasicAcid »

sin0001

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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2303 on: October 01, 2013, 05:21:56 pm »
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I know we can anti-differentiate something like this using tan^-1 : 1/(x^2+4), but is there a way to expand this using partial fractions?
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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2304 on: October 01, 2013, 05:25:22 pm »
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You have an irreducible factor in the denominator (i.e. we can't factorise over the reals), so you can't, you have to go the way.
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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2305 on: October 01, 2013, 05:25:47 pm »
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I know we can anti-differentiate something like this using tan^-1 : 1/(x^2+4), but is there a way to expand this using partial fractions?

Not that I know of, as the denominator is not reducible, thus we need to use the arctan derivative.

SocialRhubarb

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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2306 on: October 01, 2013, 06:00:14 pm »
+1
With q9 on the 2007 exam 1, the assessors report says that there is a more rigorous way to answer the question than simply assuming that x=cos(t) and y=sin(t),

So what is this apparent method?











« Last Edit: October 01, 2013, 06:04:47 pm by SocialRhubarb »
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zvezda

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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2307 on: October 01, 2013, 06:56:24 pm »
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Lol. This is what i did assuming x and y were cos(t) and sin(t)

Thanks
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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2308 on: October 01, 2013, 07:03:41 pm »
+2
I know we can anti-differentiate something like this using tan^-1 : 1/(x^2+4), but is there a way to expand this using partial fractions?

Let's mess around with this a bit. This IS spesh after all.
If we expand 1/(x^2-m^2), we find that this is equal to 1/2m*(1/(x-m)-1/(x+m))
So if we let m=ai, then our fraction becomes 1/(x^2+a^2)=1/2ai*(1/(x-ai)-1/(x+ai))
Integrating, we get -i/2a*ln((x-ai)/(x+aoi)) plus a constant.
On the other hand, we know that we can integrate 1/(x^2+a^2) to give 1/a*arctan(x/a)
When x=0, both sides are meant to equal zero. So I'm going to multiply the log term by a factor of something as that's what adding a constant does.
We eventually get LHS=-i/2a*ln((ai-x)/(ai+x))=1/a*arctan(x/a)
Or arctan(x/a)=-i/2ln((ai-x)/(ai+x))

If you want the meaning of what the natural log of a complex number means, use the identity e^ix=cis x, easily proven by showing that both sides satisfy dy/dx=iy and y(0)=1. AKA rewrite a complex number rcis t in the form re^it. Then if z=re^it, ln z=ln(r)+it. Note that this means the natural log is multivalued; the principal value of the log corresponds to the one with the principal value of the argument.

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Alwin

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Re: Specialist 3/4 Question Thread!
« Reply #2309 on: October 01, 2013, 07:41:15 pm »
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Nope, hefferman exam 1 I believe, I just did one under exam conditions at school.

And fuck, I should've known how to do that -_-

Btw cheers alwin I appreciate you not just spitting the answer out and just giving me the hint :)

lol serves me right for doing my exam 1s in chunks rather than like one per day. my mistake

and I'm here for you ;) always ;)

@nliu, Euler's formula isn't in spesh is it? At least I don't remember seeing it in the essential textbook anywhere :P
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