Doppler effect

[rife168]

I don't even know what this is relevant to, but I was thinking about it today:
Say there is a line of speakers (or other kind of sound source) and an observer is standing alongside the line of speakers near the centre, and a particular sound/frequency is played sequentially from one end of the speakers to the other. Would the observer still experience the Doppler effect even though the sound isn't coming from one source? What about if the speakers were (theoretically) infinitely small?

Would I be right in assuming that it would still occur?

[DlP]

Wouldn't that be the same as getting one speaker, playing a sound then moving the speaker? So as the time it takes to move the speaker approaches zero, it becomes more and more like a single, fluid motion - the Doppler effect. In your post, that should the same as making the sounds play right after one another, with a zero second delay.

It's like a digital version of the Doppler effect.

I think.
...

=S

[rife168]

Yeah it makes sense that it would still occur, just clarifying really. Thanks