Firstly, e^x > 0. I'll denote e^x with y and y>0.
Now cot y = 1/(tan y)
Therefore arccot (cot y) = y = arcccot(1/tan y) = arccot (cot y)
But tan y = 1/ cot y so y=arctan(1/cot y)
So arctan(1/cot y) = arccot (cot y)
arctan 1/y = arccot y = pi/2 - arctan y
Therefore arctan 1/y and -arctan y differ by a constant, so when integrating these two forms are equivalent.
Thanks - so the missing C has been the culprit all along?

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Show that the sequence
^n}{n^2})
converges to zero by arguing directly from the definition of convergence.
^n}{n^2}\leq\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{n+1}{n^2})
Can we solve for
)
explicitly?
The solution given does it another way, which was demand that

from which

follows. How would you show that the second inequality follow from n>2? It's fairly obvious but how would you prove it, and also, could we had

? Or 4n? Likewise, can we 'demand' n be greater than any arbitrary natural number rather than 1?