^ just plug in the given values of x and y and solve for a
how do you get
from antidifferentiating
i'm getting
from substitution + partial fractions but the plot doesn't fully agree with the solution wolframalpha gave
Erm...I don't think I quite understand your answer. I don't think you're meant to get a spare (1+cos x) term anywhere. Is that under another log or something?
dx/sin x => sin x dx/(1-cos^2 x)
Let u = cos x, du = -sin x dx
Integral becomes du/(u^2-1) => du/2 (1/(u-1) - 1/(u+1)) => 1/2 ln(1-cos x) - 1/2 ln(1+cos x) after integrating and back subbing
That's what you meant, right?
OR you can do this
1/(sin x)
Sub t = tan x/2 (dirtiest substitution trick in the book)
You can show quite easily that tan x = 2t/(1-t^2), sin x = 2t/(1+t^2) and cos x = (1-t^2)/(1+t^2) , dx = 2 dt/(1+t^2)
so our integral becomes (1+t^2)/2t * 2dt/(1+t^2)
The 1+t^2 terms drop off
so our integral is just dt/t
We're left with just ln (tan x/2) which really should appear as ln(sin (x/2)) - ln(cos(x/2))