Hey guys, how would you infer that lethal alleles are involved within this question,
We know that 'When the hairy dogs are mated, they tend to produce larger litters and never produce hairless offspring" meaning that they must be homozygous recessive.
The hairless dogs can be either heterozygotes or homozygous dominant.
(but their litters are smaller, which suggests something is different)
if you add up all the hairless offspring, you get 16.
If you add up all the hairy offspring, you get 8.
A ratio of 2:1 hairless to hairy. "Other breeders of Mexican hairless dogs always obtained similar overall ratios." suggests that this 2:1 ratio is reliable.
If you label the hairless dogs as HH, draw a punnet square, you'll see that their offspring will be 100% HH, which we know is not true (due to the difference of the ratio of phenotypes)
If you label the hairless dogs as Hh, draw a punnet square, you'll see that their offspring will be 25% homozygous dominant (HH), 50% heterozygous (Hh), and 25% homozygous recessive (hh). Since we can infer that the genotype of a hairy dog is hh, the genotype of hairless dogs must be Hh. The ratio 2:1 reinforces that HH is a lethal allele.
(apologies if this doesn't help!)