Conflicting notes

[inneedoftherapy]

Hey guys,
according to some exams (trials for teachers and my notes which i got off atarnotes), the stimulus is before the response in operant conditioning right? Because its the discriminative stimulus which predicts the response,
but according to neap and lisachem and that
the stimulus in operant conditioning is AFTER the response.

which one is right ?
Thanks!

[CossieG]

Stimulus is before the response. If there was no stimulus how could there be a response?

Remember ABC or SRC

Antecedent --> behaviour --> consequence

Stimulus --> response --> consequence

[Aelru]

Remember ABC or SRC

Antecedent --> behaviour --> consequence

Stimulus --> response --> consequence

In such a way, Antecedent is essentially the same thing as a stimulus?

[Scooby]

If they say that the stimulus is after the response, what they're referring to is the consequence (ie. they're treating the consequence as a stimulus as well, in addition to the discriminative stimulus)

Yeah, the antecedent stimulus is the same thing as the discriminative stimulus, which is the same thing as the "stimulus" in operant conditioning

[CossieG]

In such a way, Antecedent is essentially the same thing as a stimulus?

The best way to describe it is by its common dictionary definition:  A preceding occurrence, cause, or event.

So basically, it is the thing that comes before the behavior. So yes, the stimulus.

This scenario is a basic example:

A: lolly vending machine
B: put a dollar in to get a lolly
C: no lolly comes out
effect on future behaviour: no longer use this vending machine (negative punishment)