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November 01, 2025, 07:34:41 pm

Author Topic: volumes of solids of rev.  (Read 1138 times)  Share 

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mano91

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volumes of solids of rev.
« on: July 11, 2009, 10:35:23 pm »
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exercise 8D from essentials book.
question 29.

y=loge(x)       between  x=2  x=3 rotated about the x axis.
find the volume correct to 3 dec. places.

can this be done without a calculator?
ive tried looking at the inverse function and breaking it up into cylinders. but there is this tiny area i dont know how to do.

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TrueTears

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Re: volumes of solids of rev.
« Reply #1 on: July 11, 2009, 10:41:21 pm »
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Here's a good trick [Kind of stepping into the territory of integration by parts, check it out in wiki, good to know]









For this question, you don't need the +c
« Last Edit: July 11, 2009, 10:42:58 pm by TrueTears »
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QuantumJG

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Re: volumes of solids of rev.
« Reply #2 on: July 17, 2009, 02:22:10 pm »
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exercise 8D from essentials book.
question 29.

y=loge(x)       between  x=2  x=3 rotated about the x axis.
find the volume correct to 3 dec. places.

can this be done without a calculator?
ive tried looking at the inverse function and breaking it up into cylinders. but there is this tiny area i dont know how to do.



V = pi*int[(ln(x))^2]dx

this can be found without a calculator! But you need a little tertiary calculus.

V = pi*[x*(lnx)^2 - 2int(lnx)dx]

= pi*[x*(lnx)^2 - 2x(lnx - 1)]

V (2 -> 3) = pi*[3(ln3)^2 - 6ln3 + 6 + 4ln2 - 4 - 2(ln2)^2]

= pi*[3ln3(ln3 - 2) - 2ln2(ln2 - 2) + 2]

= 2.642 units cubed (correct to 3 decimal places)
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dino

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Re: volumes of solids of rev.
« Reply #3 on: July 19, 2009, 09:04:15 pm »
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isn't it easier to get the inverse, hence an exponential?


area = pi int(x)^2 dy?

or maybe I'm simplifiying things?
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dcc

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Re: volumes of solids of rev.
« Reply #4 on: July 19, 2009, 10:37:14 pm »
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The simplest you'll get it to in VCE is , which is still impossible.  Use a calculator :).

It's not only easier, but you are less likely to make a mistake / confuse examiner / make a mistake.

TrueTears

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Re: volumes of solids of rev.
« Reply #5 on: July 19, 2009, 10:38:59 pm »
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isn't it easier to get the inverse, hence an exponential?


area = pi int(x)^2 dy?

or maybe I'm simplifiying things?
You can but why would you when you can just integrate it.
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