Since different types of cells have different types of receptors, Is it better to say that they can undergo different signal transduction pathways (activating different secondary messengers) which lead to different cellular responses occurring in the cells or is it better to say that they undergo different biochemical/metabolic pathways? Or both th same thing?
Ps- Thankyou so much for answering the questions guys! 
Both are appropriate! I personally prefer 'different signal transduction pathways in different target cells' leading to different responses by the same hormone. However, different receptor types is also correct because (and this is outside the scope), you have many different types of receptors that are going to lead to the activation of different molecules -> different responses in the cells. So it's entirely up to you.
Hi guys, does anyone know where the water goes when an animal cell is in a hypotonic solution? Some animal cells don't have vacuoles so idk where it goes - just in the cytoplasm?
Yup! So most animal cells placed in hypotonic solutions are actually going to lyse (due to the absence of any cell wall to minimise how much the cell can stretch). However, some organisms like amoeba that live in fresh-water environments have actually evolved so that they use contractile vacuoles. These vacuoles contract and take up water so that it prevents the cell from expanding and lysing. Generally though, just know that placing animal cells in a hypotonic solution will inevitably lead to lysis of that cell.
2009 Bio exam 2 Question 2:
In corn, brittle stalk (b) is recessive to normal stalk (B) and green (g) is recessive to yellow (G). A claim was made that a particular plant was heterozygous at both loci.
d. i. Outline a cross you would carry out with the particular plant. Suggest results that would support the claim.
VCAA's answer was using a test cross, but would it be correct to use a dihybrid cross in which both parents are double heterozygous- thus, the phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1 which can prove the parent was heterozygous?
I guess you could but the answer they're looking for, and really the test that would most conclusively determine the genotype of the parent with the dominant phenotype is a test cross. Based upon those results, you could discern whether the parent is homozygous dominant or heterozygous.
What does 'assort independently' mean?
VCAA: During anaphase one the behaviour of one pair of homologous chromosomes is not influenced by the behaviour of the
other pair of homologous chromosomes.
Can someone explain this? Is assort independently the same as independent assortment? I don't understand VCAA's explanation.
Assort independently is the same as independent assortment. What it basically means is that the behaviour of one pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis will not be dependent on any other chromosomes. For example, if the parental chromosome 1 lined up to the left of equator and maternal chromosome 1 (I'm talking about the homologous pairs here) lined up on the left, the parental chromosome 2 might be on the right and the maternal chromosome 2 could be on the left. This is basically showing you that you wont end up with some gametes EXCLUSIVELY made up of maternal or paternal alleles; it provides variation because you ultimately recombine the genetic material so as to increase variation in the gametes. Does that make sense?
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