For question 2, wouldn't the answer be a lipid intracellular receptor as oestrogen is a lipid, and for a receptor to be intracellular, the oestrogen molecule must be able to pass through the membrane, which proteins cannot (as not lipid soluble)?
For Question 7, I thought the gap junction only works for molecules that are really small, too small for cell signalling- could someone explain why I'm wrong, and why pheromones is the correct answer?
For Q8, apparently, Signals can be detected by any cell in the body if It has a receptor that is either located within the cytoplasm or on the surface of the membrane, but I thought if the receptor is in the cytoplasm then some signals won't go through? (e.g. ones that can't permeate the membrane)
Thx in advance for the help!
Question 2: You are right, because Oestrogen is a lipid-based hormone, and there is a clue as it travels via the bloodstream with the aid of a protein carrier. But remember, when the hormone is lipid based, it cannot simply diffuse through the blood stream due to it's non-polar nature, hence it requires carrier molecule to transport it across the blood stream. Now your question is why is the carrier molecule not lipid? Well, if the lipid hormone was enclosed in a lipid carrier, then how can it diffuse through the blood stream? Hence, the hormone attaches itself to a protein molecule so that it can simply diffuse through the stream, because remember, proteins are soluble and polar.
Question 7: Your reasoning is very wrong. Remember, neurotransmitters exocytose and diffuse through the synaptic gap, to the post-synaptic membrane, and once they bind with the post synaptic receptors, they initiate the action potential in the adjacent neurone. This is by all means cell signalling. Another example occurs when the motor neurones signal the muscle/effector cells/tissue to initiate the response to the stimuli, this can only be achieved when the neurotransmitters from the motor cell have diffused down the synaptic gap and have initiated a cellular response in the effector tissue. Why is there no cell signalling with pheromones though? Well there is, but that is only when the pheromone is detected by a receptor. However, when the pheromone is released, key word released, it is released into the external environment via exocrine glands, and hence the diffusion of the pheromones into the atmosphere is not cell signalling, remember hormones/pheromones are not cells, they are molecules/proteins/lipids.
Question 8: You are sort of right here, if the signalling molecule is lipid-based, it can simply diffuse through the membrane and bind to it's protein receptor whether it is cytoplasmic or protoplasmic (in the nucleus). However, protein-based molecules/hormones cannot diffuse through the membrane, but there are transmembrane (embedded within the membrane) protein receptors that act as receptors, for these protein-based molecules. Otherwise, how else can protein-based molecules achieve their function, if they can never initiate the cellular response? Well, now you know that they cannot diffuse in, so they bind to transmembrane receptors, and from there signal transduction is initiated, until the specific cellular response is achieved.