Hello friends its me again 
Dont understand this inequality integration thing at all would love some guidance through these 2 examples
1) Without evaluating the integrals, explain whether int pi (up) 0 (low) sin^4 x dx > int pi(up) 0 (low) sin4x dx is true or false
2) Use lnt = int t(up) 1 (low) dx/x for t>1 to deduce that 1- 1/t < or equal to lnt < or equal to 1/2 (t- 1/t) for t> or equal to 1.
tyyyy 
Hey! This relies on a little bit of intuition

For the first one, remember that definite integrals correspond to
areas! The integral of a function from \(\int^\pi_0f(x)dx\) for any function corresponds to the area between the function and the x-axis. So, the question is, is the area between \(\sin^4{x}\) and the x-axis larger than the area between \(\sin{4x}\) and the x-axis (both from 0 to \(\pi\))? The answer is
yes, that is immediately clear if we examine them graphically (the \(\sin{4x}\) is in light blue):

For \(\sin{4x}\), the value is zero! The areas below cancel the areas above! So, the statement MUST be true!
Sorry, I'm having a little trouble interpreting Q2 right now; I'll try again in the morning if no one else has had a crack 