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Not sure what you mean by 'just substitute (n+1) wins in place of the five wins' - n is just some arbitrary integer for the purpose of generalising the result in iii). If you could explain what you mean, might help your understanding
Also, the expression is also not necessarily the probability of A winning; note that a probability must be between 0 and 1, and the RHS is clearly bigger than 1, since 2
2n=1 when n=0, which isn't a positive integer. Rather, the question asks us to generalise the result in ii) and apply it to prove another, different result.
Also, there are a few things to note before answering this question:
- To win n+1 times, someone must have won by the (2n+1)
th game; this should be reasonably simple to surmise
- To win n+1 times, we must consider the first n games that person wins, plus however many the other wins during that process, and take it as given that the person winning n games up to that point wins the next game.
Starting from the beginning, let's have A win n+1 games, all in a row. From i), we see that he wins the first n games, then wins the (n+1)
th game in the expression below:
Similarly, if A takes n+2 games to win n+1 of them, we have:
Continuing until the (2n+1)
th game, we have the chance of A winning n+1 games:
But clearly, A is just as likely to win n+1 games as B is, since the chance of each of them winning is equal. Thus, the above expression is equal to half, and we can manipulate the expression from there.
And we are done
Hope this helps