Suppose you had:
society A where there is complete equality of resources;
society B where there is an inequality in resources but all people in society B have more resources than people in society A
All else the same, which society is preferable to the other?
The principle that inequality in itself is a problem, and that a society with less inequality in resources is more desirable, answers this question by choosing society A (by definition A has less inequality than B)
Alternatively, if preferring A over B is rejected as repugnant, then the principle that less inequality in resources is more desirable, must in some way fail to capture our intuitive notions of social welfare.
Now suppose there were some government policy that would reduce the resources of those at the top without affecting the resources of anyone else, would you want the government to flip this switch? This question is essentially the asking the same thing as my question about the comparative desirability of society A & B. When 'resources' was replaced with income, many readers were not so quick to embrace the idea of flipping the switch:
http://vcenotes.com/forum/index.php/topic,1449.0.htmlIndeed, when first hearing the proposal, most people find flipping the switch repugnant. And that reaction is precisely what makes the objective of less inequality in resources so interesting. Flipping the switch or preferring A over B, follows inexorably from this objective. If the conclusion is rejected, the assumptions must be reconsidered or at least significantly amended.
Therefore, those who advocate that the objective ought to be greater equality in resources, must flip that switch (i.e. prefer A over B), or they must reject, or at least significantly amend, their social welfare objective of greater equality in resources. The choice cannot be avoided. Though that hasn't stopped some from trying:
I therefore have no current intention of sharing my thoughts with you on this matter.
Translation: "I am refusing to answer your question."
Olympic-calibre cop-out.
It should be now clear why neophyte, who said that "inequality is the problem", has refused to answer the question. The reason is because:
(1) If he picked A, then he is acknowledging a morally repugnant consequence of the principle that less inequality is more desirable; or
(2) If he picked anything but A (i.e. by picking B or saying "it depends" etc.), then he has contradicted his earlier statement that "Inequality is the problem".
the opinion that if you have a goal that it must be realised at all moral and social costs, that the ends justifies the means. Not everyone is.
reduce the educational standards of the wealthy and should therefore not be undertaken.
As neophyte has been saying, to state that inequality is a problem does not justify all solutions which could conceivably exarcerbate or create other problems.
Those two posts just proves my point again, that inequality is not the problem, but rather educational standards is the problem. It is implied from your comment that the objective is to raise educational standards not reduce inequality.
Suppose you hold that a particular state or condition is desirable. Suppose there is a particular means of achieving that. However you reject that means. Why do you reject that particular means, if not for the fact that it offends some higher principle or end that you deem more worthy?
Finally, and most important, this "means vs. end" does not even apply to the question of the comparative desirability of society A & B.
I think society B is more desirable. However, society B would be undesirable if those who had fewer resources were not given the opportunity to gain more resources.
It is implied in the question that the two societies are the same but for the two features i specified. This is to make explicit the relevant principles you are (implicitly) using to rank the desirability of different societies.
jamesdrv and bubble sunglasses have cited two of the many flaws of the question.
That's just nonsensical. A question is not a proposition, so it cannot be flawed. Secondly, jamesdrv and bubble sunglasses' very response to my question illustrates my point:
It would be essential to know the *extent* of the inequality in society B before answering that question
Society B by definition has more inequality than A. If the principle was that inequality is a problem in itself, and that reducing inequality was the objective, then clearly according to that principle, A is preferable to B.
But the very fact that you wanted to know the extent of inequality, before you would make rank the two societies, means that inequality is not a problem in itself and that there exists a higher social welfare objective that you have left unstated. Coblin illustrated this point previously:
You're not desiring equality - because if you desired equality you would desire the destruction of the top end if you had only the option between a destructive mean or living with inequality. This shows that equality is not your goal, it is just a consequence of what your actual goal is - which is to create resources that are more accessible than before.