Author Topic: Inverse Function Must state Domain despite it not asking? (Read 1051 times) Tweet Share

onlyfknhuman · « **on:** November 05, 2008, 07:02:40 pm »

When asked to find the inverse of a function?

Must you state the new domain despite the question not requesting for it?

I think i read somewhere, where it stated this.

nerd · « **Reply #1 on:** November 05, 2008, 07:05:48 pm »

That was stated in one of the assessors reports (either 2006 or 2007). I'd do it just incase (better safe than sorry!).

For me, I usually find it easiest to find the DOMAIN of the inverse by finding the RANGE of the original function (they will be the same).

onlyfknhuman · « **Reply #2 on:** November 05, 2008, 07:18:34 pm »

Yea same.

fredrick · « **Reply #3 on:** November 05, 2008, 07:22:02 pm »

should we write it in the formal form ie $f^{-1}:[0,\infty]\rightarrow R,f^{-1}(x)=x$ or just write dom=wateva next to the rule?

nerd · « **Reply #4 on:** November 05, 2008, 07:26:40 pm »

Either way is fine, I think.

onlyfknhuman · « **Reply #5 on:** November 05, 2008, 07:33:42 pm »

I've only seen it as written as just the domain. screw that other thing looks too complex =p

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Author Topic: Inverse Function Must state Domain despite it not asking? (Read 1051 times) Tweet Share

onlyfknhuman

Inverse Function Must state Domain despite it not asking?

nerd

Re: Inverse Function Must state Domain despite it not asking?

onlyfknhuman

Re: Inverse Function Must state Domain despite it not asking?

fredrick

Re: Inverse Function Must state Domain despite it not asking?

nerd

Re: Inverse Function Must state Domain despite it not asking?

onlyfknhuman

Re: Inverse Function Must state Domain despite it not asking?

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