Oh! and one last thing... maybe
How exactly do we show that a function is a probability density function for f(x) ≥ 0 for all real numbers of x? Do we show this by graphing the function or is there another way?
Think about what it means for
 \ge 0)
in terms of the range.
If you think about it that way, it's just a Methods 1&2 problem of finding the range given the domain. After you get the range, you just need to check whether it's a subset of the non-negative numbers.
Sorry! Didn't see the other question before. There's a few ways you can think about it. I'll give you two.
Firstly, if you recall how you actually got an integral, you had to take rectangles and add up all their areas. So, you had something like
\Delta{x})
for the area of each strip. Even in the integral, you were never adding up single values, you were clumping values together in intervals and then adding up the rectangles they were a part of. Thus, it doesn't make sense that when you integrate a PDF on a single value, you should end up with a non-zero number.
Another way to think about it is that it is so unlikely to occur. Let us choose a person and measure their foot size. Let's say that we determined it with complete accuracy. Now, choose a million, a billion, etc. people and measure their foot sizes, how many of them will have exactly the same foot size as the first person you chose? Probably 0.
You can foot size as a string of numbers, and each digit has to be exactly the same for a position for two numbers to be the same. There are ten digits to choose from, so even assuming it was uniform, there are 10 choices for the first digit, then another 10 for the second digit, that's a hundred, and, another 10,....