Hi guys,
I came accross this question, I thought I had the answer but I didn't:
For pi/2<A<pi and 0<B<pi/2 sinA=t and cosB=t, cos(B+A)=?
?
i got 0 but the answer says -2t(1-t^2)^(1/2)
How did they get this?
Many thanks.
pi/2<A<pi is in the second quadrant.
0<B<pi/2 is in the first quadrant.
cos (B + A) = cosBcosA - sinBsinA
We need to work out what cosA and sinB is equal to.
cosA = -(1-t
2)^(1/2)......why?
sinA = t, so opposite side of triangle = t, hypotenuse of triangle = 1, and adjacent side of triangle = (1/t
2)^(1/2). Because A is in the 2nd quadrant and cosine is negative in the 2nd quadrant, cosA = -(1-t
2)^(1/2)......
sinB = (1-t
2)^(1/2)....why?
follow the same logic as above, except this time sinB will remain positive, because B is in the 1st quadrant and sine is positive in the 1st quadrant.
Substituting these values into the cos (B + A) formula....
t x (-(1-t
2)^(1/2)) - (1-t
2)^(1/2) x t
= -2t(1-t
2)^(1/2)