Thanks so much!
I did this another way where I get
, could you please tell me how I would eliminate 
 ...[1])
 ...[2] )

=A(sin(a)+cos(a)) )

^2=A^2 )


You disregard the negative result as the amplitude is always a positive value.
So you'd have

And that
 + \pi = -\frac{\pi}{6} + \pi = \frac{5\pi}{6})
(add pi due to the phase angle being in Q2)
So the equivalent function is
)
which after apply the identity
=\sin(\pi-x))
can be converted to the given answer
)
Simply, if you have something of the form
+b\cos(kx))
then the equivalent single sine function is
)
Where

(remember to take the positive value as the amplitude is positive)
and
)
, if

lies in Q1 or Q4,
+ \pi)
, if

lies in Q2 or
- \pi)
, if

lies in Q3
We were taught in first year mathematics at uni (for those who hadn't studied anything higher than methods), to always disregard the negative A and have a positive amplitude, but considering you guys might be using other methods it might be allowed. Not to mention if you yield the correct answer I doubt they'd care anyway.