okay there is a difference between sin^(-1)(x) and 1/sin(x), although the laws of algebra seems to tell us that the two are equal. mathematicians use sin^(-1)(x) or arcsin(x) to signify the inverse function of sin(x) over the domain [-pi/2,pi/2]. recall the definition of an inverse function. let's say we have a function f such that when we input the number a, the number b is outputted. the inverse function of f, denoted by f^(-1), is a function such that when we input the number b, the number a is outputted. the inverse function of f is a function that 'undoes' f. now, this is radically different from the reciprocal function of f, which is merely 1/f. mathematicians use cosec(x) to signify the reciprocal function of sin(x) over the domain R, i.e. 1/sin(x).
hope this makes sense.