I'll take a bit of devil's advocate position in this post here then.
Assange has been charged of a crime in Sweden. How do we know, other than his word and the very odd circumstances of the issue, that he is not guilty of it?
Would it be improper of the UK to assume that he is not guilty, that he does not need to deal with these allegations and allow him to escape?
I don't know anything about UK's international relations, but they seem to be in some sort of 'tug-of-war' between Sweden and Ecuador. Oh I should also mention that I know nothing really about these laws. Feel free to highlight any flaws if I am holding a misconception.
This is probably my main question that I'd like answered. UK seems to be bound by the Extradition law and also this diplomacy business. These are both pieces of international law? Which one is more important, which one do they have very little way out of following? If they have a legal method of not having to deal with this Ecuador business, but not a legal way out of the extradition business, then wouldn't it make sense to go for the Sweden path then?
Are they in a position to do nothing?
Also, what international relationship is of more value to the UK? Sweden or Ecuador. Would that be a factor in it?