Ok, I am still having serious issues with one area on muscles.
For smooth muscles:
If we remove ECF Ca2+, but still stimulate the muscle, shouldn't it be able to fire?
Because it has a sarcoplasmic reticulum that releases calcium itself.
I don't understand how a cardiac muscle can fire when stimulated directly, while a smooth muscle cannot.
Cardiac muscles also have Ca2+ dependant Ca2+ release from the SR, just like smooth muscles?
In smooth muscles, the Ca
2+ in the sacroplasmic reticulum is only released as a result of calcium-induced calcium release due to an influx of Ca
2+ from the ECF. This stands in contrast to skeletal muscle cells in which the DHP receptors in the t-tubules are
mechanically linked to the calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (i.e. no calcium-induced calcium release). As such, ECF Ca
2+ is required for smooth muscle
contraction.
In addition, smooth muscle action potentials use Ca
2+ instead of Na
+ for depolarization, so if you remove ECF Ca
2+ action potentials won't be able to fire in the first place, even if the cells are directly stimulated.
Now, cardiac contractile muscle cells also have calcium-induced calcium release. As such, their
contraction requires ECF Ca
2+, but the propagation of
action potentials in these cells
does not require ECF Ca
2+.
Does that help...? I think part of the problem might be that you're forgetting to separate whether or not a given cell will be able to
contract from whether a given cell will be able to
fire an action potential.