Would it be correct to say that when a metal is oxidised, it always forms its respective cation?
So for e.g. If Na metal was oxidised it would form Na1+ not Na2+ or anything else?
Also, is it correct to say that when you are finding the formula of a hydrated compound you do not need to be given the molar mass of the compound and instead the formula of the hydrate is always equal to its empirical formula?
Thanks
If only chemistry were that simple.
For group 1 metals, you'd think it's always the case. Which it is until you get to like Rb and Cs in which you can oxidise them to ridiculously unstoichiometric compounds like Cs
9O
2. Look up 'metal suboxide' for more details.
Then, transition metals have multiple oxidation states. Fe(II) and Fe(III) both exist and are stable under different conditions. It can also be oxidised to a +6 oxidation state in the form of FeO
42-. Manganese can exist in many oxidation states from +2 to +7, while others like osmium can be oxidised all the way to +8. It's not always a given that you'll get a particular oxidation state.
And then, you may not even get a simple cation. If you oxidise iron metal in the presence of excess fluoride ions, you'll form FeF
63-. Similarly, chromium can be oxidised all the way to dichromate. There are also other possibilities, like having NiCl
42-. Chemistry is incredibly complex, much more than what VCE makes you think.
Would it be correct to say that when a metal is oxidised, it always forms its respective cation?
So for e.g. If Na metal was oxidised it would form Na1+ not Na2+ or anything else?
Also, is it correct to say that when you are finding the formula of a hydrated compound you do not need to be given the molar mass of the compound and instead the formula of the hydrate is always equal to its empirical formula?
Thanks
Not true. If you were to hypothetically hydrate something like Co
2CO
8 with 2 water molecules, its empirical formula would be CoCO
4.H
2O, which would be completely wrong.
Again, it depends on the actual example.