Can I please have some help with these 2 questions please? I got stuck on 20 d) and the questions onwards
Sure!
For 20E, you know the total is six. With 16 possible outcomes (some identical), the ones that match this are 24, 42, 33 and 33. Only one of these has 4 as the second spin. Meaning the answer is just the probability of spinning a 2 and then a 4 (use whatever value of \(k\) you obtained).
For 20F, product rule of probability - Multiply the probability of a 4, with the probability of 3, with the probability of a 2.
For 20G, consider the possible ways we can arrange the outcomes from 20F - There are \(3!=6\) arrangements. So we multiply the answer from 20F by 6!
20H, approach it in the same way as 20E.
20I, calculate the probabilites of three 1's, three 2's, three 3's and three 4's and add it together

For 21, do it piece by piece. First, what are the odds of choosing no faulty components? Well it means we pick four healthy components in a row:

For 1 faulty, we do a similar thing, multiplying by the number of ways we could possibly arrange the choices:
\times4!)
Do similar maths to find \(P_2,P_3\) and \(P_4\) - They will form your probability distribution (remember 5dp as specified!)
