hi i have 3 qs on probability
14) in a particular game of chance, the probability of winning the only prize in any draw is 1 in 50.
ii) if it is to be 99% certain that the prize will have been won, how many consecutive draws must
be made?
so i already saw the fallacy of my reasoning when trying to prove it but i don't understand why u take the probability of not winning...
my reasoning
p(winning)=0.02
(0.02)^n=0.99
and used logs to solve but i could already see before doing it i would get a very small number (below 1) for the number
of draws which obviously doesn't make sense.
Answers:
p(not winning)=49/50 = 0.98
(0.98)^n ≤ 0.01
so could someone explain why we use the values for not winning to solve this question? I'm so lost
19) a game involving a single dice has the following rules
a player throws two ordinary dice repeatedly until the sum of the two numbers is either
a 6 or a 8. If the sum is a 8, the player wins. If the sum is 6, the player loses.
If the sum is any other number, the player continues to throw until it is 6 or 8.
i) Show the probability that the player wins on the first throw of the dice is 5/36
so i don't understand why it is 5/36.
technically isnt the probability= probability he throws an 8 and doesn't throw a 6 for every throw
so for the first throw isn't it 5/36 x 31/36
15) A local high school has a student population comprising of 52% female and 48% male.
a survey is carried out and two students are randomly selected to take part.
i) find the probability both students are male
so considering that one student is picked and another is picked without replacement
would this not affect the probability for the gender of the second student?
(becos one is removed so the percentage of females would increase and the males would decrease....
its probably incorrect but i was thinking in terms of fractions assuming the student body had 100 people or is it too large that taking one student out would have a minute effect on the percentages?)
thanksss
