Hey! It's way more typical to use \(x\) as far as I know, but the form of the function is the same so I suppose it's practically equivalent! Like, a function is just a box that takes an input and gives an output. The pro numeral doesn't really affect that. So I'd say it's an unusual way to think of an inverse function, but I suppose it is the same 
Ah, sorry for the delayed reply but
I will have to disagree here Jamon.
In MATH1081, and as far as all university maths courses are concerned, a function is defined usually by f: X->Y. That just means that the domain and codomain are specified. To distinguish between the fact that x is an element in the domain and
y is an element in the codomain, by convention we take the pronumerals to be different.
I believe it is crucial to use a different variable for the inverse function f
-1: Y->X