Thanks guys!
But what's the logic behind the equation, i.e. would it be possible to derive or work out the question if you didn't know the equation?
It is possible to derive it:
Let

and let

(two-allele population)
Then, p + q = 1 (this is a given, as if the population only contains two alleles, then the frequencies of both alleles MUST add to give 1).
[Squaring both sides]
^2=1^2)
^2=1)
[Expanding]
^2=p^2+2pq+q^2=1)
Therefore, we can derive the above equation.
The same is true for a three allele population (except with three alleles instead of two)
NOTE: The Hardy-Weinberg equation makes specific assumptions about a population:
- All phenotypes exhibit equal fitness (no natural selection) (i.e. if a heterozygous phenotype is strongly selected against then the frequency of the heterozygous allelic combination may well be 0.0 despite the equation demonstrating otherwise).
- No immigration or emigration (again, will skew assumed relative proportions of alleles)
- No genetic drift (assuming extremely large population)
(I may not have included all of the factors... a little bit coarse on the edges after all of this time... lol)