Thanks for the reply guys but I still don't get quite what we need to prove exactly.
From Stewarts:
The precise definition of a limit:
is
"iff for every
there is a number
such that if
then
"
So what EXACTLY out of that statement do we have to prove?
Actually I think I kinda get it...
So the first thing you have to prove is that there does EXIST a
for every
. In this case we worked backwards to find that
Then we must prove that if
then
Which we showed by subbing
back into the original inequality
which does yield the result of
So we have Q.E.D
Is that interpretation right?
But the only dilemma is, how do we prove "for every
"?
We just proved for one fixed
and proved for every number LESS than it, but there are numbers bigger than
, so the question is how do we prove for ALL
?