Q 5 of 2007 VCAA of light and matter
2/3 < 1
So i wrote little or no diffraction
Is that the same as > There would be a diffraction pattern because the wavelength is of the same order of magnitude as the interatomic
spacing.
No it's not the same. You wrote 'no diffraction', while that states there is diffraction.
There is always diffraction (even if it is below or above 1), what varies is how significant/noticeable it is.
I would most definitely avoid the use of the term 'no diffraction will occur'.
That ratio wavelength/slit width is for the 'extent of diffraction'. If wavelength is larger than the slit width then you'd get a lot of diffraction. If the wavelength is smaller than the slit width and you get a low level of diffraction. But there is still diffraction.
I'd tend to write something like that diffraction would occur because of the order of magnitude stuff, but due the wavelength being smaller than the slit width a weak pattern may be observed.
The Australian Institute of Physics gave two possible answers in their solutions:
Yes (1), the wavelength is comparable to the interatomic spacing (1).
The answer ‘No’ (1) could be argued for by saying the wavelength is smaller than the spacing and little diffraction will be noticed (1).
So you are correct going by the AIP. If the VCAA would accept the answer, I don't know.
edit: fixed wording